Nevets wrote:Thomas Eshuis wrote:False and your wiki quote, as usual, does not state that
If you look at the headline of the wikipedia article, where it is talking about the Norse Gaelic language, you will see it is talking about Norse language. Which part in Norse Gael do you not understand, as pertaining to Norse?
Which part of Norse-Gael not being the same as the Gaelic already spoken on the British Islands, do you not understand?
Which part of the fact that the Welsh language, including the term Prydain, predates the arrival of Norse-Gaels in Britain, do you not understand?
Or to put it simply, who do you think you'll fool with this pathetic trolling?
Nevets wrote:Thomas Eshuis wrote:The quote above is specifically about Norse-Gaels.
There were Celts on the British Isles, centuries before the Norse-Gaels arrived and the Welsh language predates it as well.
Nonsense. There is great dispute with contemporary historiand regards to when the Welsh language was solidified. Some say around 575ad. Others as late as 9th Century
That's the origin of the modern and codified Welsh.
The Welsh language has a longer history than that and the term Prydain, predates the arrival of the Norsemen in Britain.
To quote that wiki page:
Linguist Kenneth H. Jackson has suggested that the evolution in syllabic structure and sound pattern was complete by around AD 550, and labelled the period between then and about AD 800 "Primitive Welsh".[25] This Primitive Welsh may have been spoken in both Wales and the Hen Ogledd ("Old North") – the Brittonic-speaking areas of what is now northern England and southern Scotland – and therefore may have been the ancestor of Cumbric as well as Welsh. Jackson, however, believed that the two varieties were already distinct by that time.[17] The earliest Welsh poetry – that attributed to the Cynfeirdd or "Early Poets" – is generally considered to date to the Primitive Welsh period. However, much of this poetry was supposedly composed in the Hen Ogledd, raising further questions about the dating of the material and language in which it was originally composed.[17] This discretion stems from the fact that Cumbric was widely believed to have been the language used in Hen Ogledd. An 8th-century inscription in Tywyn shows the language already dropping inflections in the declension of nouns.[26]
Janet Davies proposed that the origins of Welsh language were much less definite; in The Welsh Language: A History, she proposes that Welsh may have been around even earlier than 600 AD. This is evidenced by the dropping of final syllables from Brittonic: *bardos "poet" became bardd, and *abona "river" became afon.[23] Though both Davies and Jackson cite minor changes in syllable structure and sounds as evidence for the creation of Old Welsh, Davies suggests it may be more appropriate to refer to this derivative language as Lingua Britannica rather than characterising it as a new language altogether.
And from the wiki page on Welsh literature:
The Welsh language became distinct from other dialects of Old British sometime between AD 400 and 700; the earliest surviving literature in Welsh is poetry dating from this period.
But don't let the facts and your own sources stop you from making up whatever shit appeals to you.
Nevets wrote:Thomas Eshuis wrote: 5. The Norse-Gaels you are talking about did not arrive in Scotland until the Viking age. Scotland was already populated by Picts and other tribes at that time. The arrival of Norse-Gaels has no bearing on the term Prydain. Nor is Scotland Cymru, which is where the term originates from.
But this is contradicted by the Gododdin. They were already making their way to Wales 600ad
Except the Gododdin were Bretons, not Norsemen as has been explained to you multiple times now.
And the Norse-Gaels did not arrive until the Viking Age, which was 200 years later.
Nevets wrote:Thomas Eshuis wrote:Again the Gododdin weren't Norse or Norse-Gaels. They were Bretons. The Norse-Gaels did not arrive in the area until 200 years later
Old Norse dates back to 200ad
Completely irrelevant non-sequitur #2346245
Nevets wrote:Please explain, how then, if the Norse had not arrived in Din Eidyn (Gaelic for Edinburgh), between 5th and 7th century, how come the anglos had already given Edinburgh a Gaelic name by 500AD.
Because, as I've already pointed out:
1. Norse is not a Gaelic language.
2. Celts had been living for centuries in the British Isles, even before the Romans arrived, so Gaelic language was already present, without the need for Norse. Gaelic as we know today is derived from the language of Iron Age Celts living in the British Isles.
Nevets wrote:The reason is, is because you keep falling for peoples changing their names.
More projection on your part.
Nevets wrote:The Norman conquest was Danish
It wasn't. Nor were the Normans Danes.
Nevets wrote:The Viking conquest was Norse, including Danish,
Vague gibberish. There is no 'the' Viking conquest.
Nevets wrote:And the Anglo conquest, was also Danish.
Except it wasn't as Danish did not exist as an ethnicity and the Angles spoke European-Germanic languages, not Scandinavian Danish.
Nevets wrote:The anglo conquest happened right after the Roman Empire left Britain, and as you can see on the wikipedia map, Angles, were from Denmark
And the Celts were originally from Eastern Europe, yet we don't call them Hungarians.
Germanic, not Danish.
Nevets wrote:And the invasion began around 410ad
The Germanics/Saxons, were just foot soldiers, to the anglos
How else do you think God Odin was walking around Britain 500ad?
The above is yet more counterfactual matter produced directly by your arse.

"Respect for personal beliefs = "I am going to tell you all what I think of YOU, but don't dare retort and tell what you think of ME because...it's my personal belief". Hmm. A bully's charter and no mistake."