poverty in antiquity

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poverty in antiquity

#1  Postby home_ » Oct 22, 2011 11:44 am

I had a debate with a friend of mine concerning poverty in today's world. Statistics show that extent of poverty has been decreasing in the last 50 years, but somehow we've stumbled upon a question: what was the extent of poverty in the antiquity? Particularly in Ancient Greece and Roman Empire: what was the proportion of citizens that didn't have access to basic human needs? (water, food, shelter and others)
I wonder if there ever existed a human society which had proportionatelly less (or equal) people living in poverty than today (that is, let's say 10-15% in developed world) and that it was existing before 20th century (.. and let's please exclude prehistoric societies).

It's hard to find good articles on this matter. Does anyone have any recommendations or maybe can anwser preceding questions?
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#2  Postby Grace » Oct 23, 2011 9:54 pm

I'm thinking poverty was not as much of a problem in the past as it is now. I'm hearing that poverty is on the rise as is the human population, so I'm curious as to the statistics you are talking about over the last 50 years.

Take Native Americans for example, before European influence; the sick, the weak, and the elderly who could not make the migration trek to 'happy hunting grounds' were left behind. This may sound cruel by modern standards, but it kept the tribe healthy and strong. These people may not have had money in the bank or fine silk from China, but they were rich in character and culture.

There are places in the world where people fared well for centuries before invasion, war, or disease was introduced. Poverty is human made and human driven.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#3  Postby home_ » Oct 24, 2011 4:55 pm

Well as usual, my primary source was Wikipedia and sources that are posted below Wikipedia's article. Here is the one on poverty.

This is one of the graphs presented:
Image

It's obvious that poverty is reducing (on the average), and several other sources point to the same conclusion. However it should be noted that increase of income inequality is inhibiting reduction of poverty.

Grace wrote:I'm hearing that poverty is on the rise as is the human population, so I'm curious as to the statistics you are talking about over the last 50 years.
I'm curious what's your source on this information, that poverty is on the rise? Where did you hear that?
Grace wrote:Take Native Americans for example, before European influence; the sick, the weak, and the elderly who could not make the migration trek to 'happy hunting grounds' were left behind. This may sound cruel by modern standards, but it kept the tribe healthy and strong. These people may not have had money in the bank or fine silk from China, but they were rich in character and culture.
Well I'm specifically interested in degree of poverty. Is it really true that tribe was healthy and strong? What does this mean anyway? Did majority of population have their basic human needs satisfied? (such as access to clean water, food, clothes and a shelter) This is what puzzles me.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#4  Postby Grace » Oct 24, 2011 10:45 pm

Did majority of population have their basic human needs satisfied? (such as access to clean water, food, clothes and a shelter) This is what puzzles me.


The Native Americans had cleaner water than European city folks. They had all the food they needed. When the Spaniards arrived, Native Americans were not starving, no one had ever gotten chicken pox, and no one had ever come down with the flu.
The natives of the Americas may not have lived in castles or manors, but their tepees, cliff dwellings, igloos, and adobe shelters were comfy, warm and adequate. So what is so puzzling?
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#5  Postby Mazille » Oct 24, 2011 10:47 pm

Bookmarked.

Also, *sigh*.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#6  Postby Animavore » Oct 24, 2011 11:12 pm

Grace wrote:
Did majority of population have their basic human needs satisfied? (such as access to clean water, food, clothes and a shelter) This is what puzzles me.


The Native Americans had cleaner water than European city folks. They had all the food they needed. When the Spaniards arrived, Native Americans were not starving, no one had ever gotten chicken pox, and no one had ever come down with the flu.
The natives of the Americas may not have lived in castles or manors, but their tepees, cliff dwellings, igloos, and adobe shelters were comfy, warm and adequate. So what is so puzzling?

So you never heard of the Anasazi? http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Pueblo_Peoples
The bit on "warfare and cannibalism" is of particular interest.


ETA: I suspect you've fallen for the myth of the 'noble savage' http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noble_savage
Last edited by Animavore on Oct 24, 2011 11:18 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#7  Postby Animavore » Oct 24, 2011 11:16 pm

* double post*
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#8  Postby Grace » Oct 25, 2011 6:11 am

I thought we were discussing poverty.

Yet, we digress, and digress...
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#9  Postby Animavore » Oct 25, 2011 5:00 pm

Grace wrote:I thought we were discussing poverty.

Yet, we digress, and digress...

No digression on my part I assure you. The link I posted directly contradicts this bullshit.

Grace wrote:
The Native Americans had cleaner water than European city folks. They had all the food they needed. When the Spaniards arrived, Native Americans were not starving, no one had ever gotten chicken pox, and no one had ever come down with the flu.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#10  Postby Doubtdispelled » Oct 25, 2011 7:51 pm

Mazille wrote:Bookmarked.

Also, *sigh*.

+1
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#11  Postby Doubtdispelled » Oct 25, 2011 8:04 pm

home_ wrote:
It's hard to find good articles on this matter. Does anyone have any recommendations or maybe can anwser preceding questions?

Poverty in the Roman World
Almsgiving, though it cannot be stopped at present, as without it we should have hunger riots, and possibly revolution, is an evil. At present we give the unemployed a dole to support them, not for love of them, but because if we left them to starve they would begin by breaking our windows and end by looting our shops and burning our houses … In ancient Rome the unemployed demanded not only bread to feed them but gladiatorial shows to keep them amused; and the result was that Rome became crowded with playboys who would not work at all, and were fed and amused with money taken from the provinces. That was the beginning of the end for ancient Rome. We may come to bread and football (or prizefights) yet.


Social Pecking Order in the Roman World
Roman society is often represented as one of social extremes - with the wealth, power and opulence of an emperor existing alongside the poverty, vulnerability and degradation of a slave.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#12  Postby Doubtdispelled » Oct 25, 2011 8:11 pm

God's hand might have shaken just a bit when he was finishing off the supposed masterwork of his creative empire.. - Stephen King
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#13  Postby home_ » Oct 25, 2011 9:09 pm

Doubtdispelled wrote:Poverty in the Roman World
This book is just what I've been looking for, but trouble is that it's pretty expensive and unfortunately there is no copy in any of libraries nearby.
:think:
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#14  Postby Animavore » Oct 25, 2011 9:28 pm

£110 for a book!? :shock:
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#15  Postby Doubtdispelled » Oct 25, 2011 10:29 pm

home_ wrote:
Doubtdispelled wrote:Poverty in the Roman World
This book is just what I've been looking for, but trouble is that it's pretty expensive and unfortunately there is no copy in any of libraries nearby.
:think:

Animavore wrote:£110 for a book!? :shock:


Does anyone else find it hilarious that a source of information on poverty in the Roman World is too expensive for ordinary folk, or is it just me?

On the other hand, those links are just from the first page of a google search 'poverty in roman times'. Who knows what else might turn up for someone with more time?
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#16  Postby maik » Oct 25, 2011 11:35 pm

home_ wrote: Particularly in Ancient Greece and Roman Empire: what was the proportion of citizens that didn't have access to basic human needs? (water, food, shelter and others)

You should keep in mind what the "social request" is, at a specific period of time at a specific place, and how this request forms the social classes. In other words, in the ancient years, poverty was not measured in the same way we measure it today; which is why it is so hard to find articles on the matter. For example, regarding Ancient Greece, there was no proletarians, there was slaves; there was no poors (at least at democratical Athens), there was outcasts of the system. Also, the proletarians of today may be in a way compared to the ancient slaves regarding the productive means, but they can't be compared on a political level. Politically speaking, the ancient slaves can only be compared to today's third world workers.
On the hard core of your question, whether there was access to basic human needs, i think that there must be a relatively satisfying adequacy of natural resources for a civilization to last and, the broader their distribution, the more original the civilization. That would explain at a degree the development of the ancient greek civilization. Ancient greeks advanced from the protogenic production (farming and agriculture) to the secondary one (trade) pretty quickly and later turned their attention to art and philosophy. I think that this has to have something to do with the mild climate of their land, the resulting adequacy of goods, the access of the common people to them and the minimization of the survival- problem in their societies.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#17  Postby Mazille » Oct 26, 2011 9:03 am

I think you are looking at this the wrong way, maik. If you bring up the example of Athens dabbling in the arts, philosophy and trade that doesn't mean that every inhabitant of Athens had his basic needs met. For such a sophisticated culture to arise you only need a small minority of inhabitants to be rich. The rest can still be piss-poor and worry about how to feed themselves on a daily basis. Up until Solon's reforms Athens, like pretty much everyone else, got by on the basis of subsistence farming, which barely enabled the farmers to feed themselves, if it even was that much. Solon also abolished the costum of farmers and their families being sold off into slavery if they could not honour their debts.

The same goes for - say - Sparta. The reason that the Spartans could afford to develop such a specialised warrior culture during the Persian wars and the Peloponnesian war was because the city of Sparta itself was adequately fed by the helots from the surrounding countryside, who were only different to slaves by name.

The same goes for much of Roman history. Marius' military reforms, for example, were needed because the small farmers were deep in debts and lost their land to rich land-owners who just added them to their already massive estate. This led to a major influx of poor proles into the urbs proper. No farmers who could afford armour and weapons meant no army, hence the reforms that the state itself should arm the citizens and even give them land after their service. Of course, this isn't the full picture, but I think it shows just how poor the majority of people were.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#18  Postby home_ » Oct 26, 2011 7:15 pm

Mazille wrote:Up until Solon's reforms Athens, like pretty much everyone else, got by on the basis of subsistence farming, which barely enabled the farmers to feed themselves, if it even was that much.
But how do we know this? What's the basis for this claim?
If we were talking about feudalism, then the claim could be justified with much historical data. But Greek and Roman (and also native Americans, which Grace brought up) had different culture and it's not so clear that farmers were in such bad situation. It could be misleading or even wrong if we only projected European middle age poverty onto other historical societies.
Doubtdispelled wrote:On the other hand, those links are just from the first page of a google search 'poverty in roman times'. Who knows what else might turn up for someone with more time?
Well I didn't find any other relevant book on this topic.
maik wrote:On the hard core of your question, whether there was access to basic human needs, i think that there must be a relatively satisfying adequacy of natural resources for a civilization to last and, the broader their distribution, the more original the civilization. That would explain at a degree the development of the ancient greek civilization.
I agree with Mazille on this one: it wouldn't have to be this way. You could have a sophisticated culture with only a minority of inhabitants that were wealthy enough to afford engaging in arts and philosophy.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#19  Postby Mazille » Oct 26, 2011 7:25 pm

home_ wrote:
Mazille wrote:Up until Solon's reforms Athens, like pretty much everyone else, got by on the basis of subsistence farming, which barely enabled the farmers to feed themselves, if it even was that much.
But how do we know this? What's the basis for this claim?
If we were talking about feudalism, then the claim could be justified with much historical data. But Greek and Roman (and also native Americans, which Grace brought up) had different culture and it's not so clear that farmers were in such bad situation. It could be misleading or even wrong if we only projected European middle age poverty onto other historical societies.

You brought up feudalism and the middle ages. I'll dig up some stuff later, though.
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Re: poverty in antiquity

#20  Postby maik » Oct 26, 2011 7:38 pm

Mazille wrote:I think you are looking at this the wrong way, maik. If you bring up the example of Athens dabbling in the arts, philosophy and trade that doesn't mean that every inhabitant of Athens had his basic needs met.

If we are talking about classic Athens, at its peak, then, yes, every citizen had their basic needs met. Note that i have mentioned the outcasts that can be regarded as "poors", as in, not having public status and therefore some "luxuries" of that time; but even they had access to basic needs, as long as they were Athenians. Even slaves were insured regarding their basic needs, since they were public property.

For such a sophisticated culture to arise you only need a small minority of inhabitants to be rich.

No, you don't. Rich are enough only to "make" a culture. They are not enough to make it sophisticated. The academic comparison between the Ottoman culture and the Ancient Greek one speaks for itself. The Ottoman Empire at its peak created an outstanding beaurocratic mechanism and a social discipline that seems impossible for the numbers (of inhabitants) within it; and they are the classic example of a society where very very rich people coexisted with very poor. When you put this model against the greek one, there is no comparison regarding arts or philosophy. As i have already said, the originality and sophistication of a culture depends more on the distribution of wealth. Diversity of "fed" people brings developement naturally i think.


The rest can still be piss-poor and worry about how to feed themselves on a daily basis. Up until Solon's reforms Athens, like pretty much everyone else, got by on the basis of subsistence farming, which barely enabled the farmers to feed themselves, if it even was that much. Solon also abolished the costum of farmers and their families being sold off into slavery if they could not honour their debts.

Well, yeah, but you are not talking about classic, democratic, Athens here.



The same goes for - say - Sparta. The reason that the Spartans could afford to develop such a specialised warrior culture during the Persian wars and the Peloponnesian war was because the city of Sparta itself was adequately fed by the helots from the surrounding countryside, who were only different to slaves by name.

Ok, but i don't see where we disagree here. Spartans had it their way, Athenians had it their way and so on.. The bottom line is that the members of the city states had no survival issues, other than battle itself (that was met either in war or in the countryside- made by outcasts and exiles). There was food for everyone. How was it distributed, that depended on politics.
If we are to talk about the different models of the greek city states in relation to actual poverty, then the only real model i can think of was the macedonian. And it is not by chance that there were poor macedonians, while most of them can be characterised as "mountain people". Which takes us to the enviromental factor that i mentioned before.

The same goes for much of Roman history. Marius' military reforms, for example, were needed because the small farmers were deep in debts and lost their land to rich land-owners who just added them to their already massive estate. This led to a major influx of poor proles into the urbs proper. No farmers who could afford armour and weapons meant no army, hence the reforms that the state itself should arm the citizens and even give them land after their service. Of course, this isn't the full picture, but I think it shows just how poor the majority of people were.

When we are talking empires, we are talking on a whole different scale. I can't imagine an empire without some kind of a rich- poor discrimination.
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