Is anything Self-Evident

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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

 
 

Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#61  Postby Teuton » Jun 08, 2011 9:55 pm

Pebble wrote:
Why should any statement be considered hierarchically more valid just because it is experience or sensory independent? Would it not make more sense to assert that the highest form of validation is empirical?


Well, that's the good old rationalism vs. empiricism debate.
Empiricists deny at least that synthetic propositions can be justified a priori, i.e. nonempirically. (That's why they don't like metaphysics.)
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#62  Postby DrWho » Jun 08, 2011 10:52 pm

Can one doubt that which is self-evident?
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#63  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 08, 2011 11:07 pm

DrWho wrote:I'm asking this question because I'm genuinely curious about what people think. Is anything Self-Evident? I suppose this calls for a defintion of Self-Evident which I take to mean any proposition that is beyond doubt. Feel free to offer any definitions deemed appropriate to the subject. It seems that anything could be doubted. Is a Self-Evident propostion beyond doubt or perhaps beyond reasonable doubt?


There is something and it is not totally random or totally homogeneous. That is a sure thing.

This bullshit about mind and awareness is bullshit however. That's second order conceptual wish-fullness and hardly self-evident. I mock those who think this way.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#64  Postby Teuton » Jun 08, 2011 11:13 pm

DrWho wrote:Can one doubt that which is self-evident?



One can at least doubt that which is apparently self-evidently or necessarily true, since appearance and reality needn't coincide.
(Well, in the psychological sense, absolutely everything can be doubted. Some logicians even doubt that the law of noncontradiction is true, which is a paradigm example of a logically necessary truth.)

"What is a rational intuition or insight? Laurence BonJour thinks it is an immediate, non-inferential grasp, apprehension, or 'seeing' that some proposition is necessarily true. He goes on to argue that a proposition's appearing to be necessarily true is the foundation of a priori justification, for he wants to allow that such justification is both fallible and defeasible. So for BonJour, it is apparent rational insights that are the evidence on which a priori justification rests, not rational insights themselves."

(http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/apriori)
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#65  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 08, 2011 11:17 pm

tnjrp wrote:... Most crucially this last involves the assumption (or not) of the factual, objective existence of something independent of your consciousness. ...


Assumption? I think not. If you can utter this sentence and then look a little closer at how you can conjure these meanings there isn't anything left to assume. If you can ask it then it is.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#66  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 08, 2011 11:22 pm

tuco wrote:Glad to see you started with definition, however, we still will probably get stuck on beyond doubt. Since I do not have a better one, I will stick to it.

The answer to the question is a task to find one self-evident proposition.


Beyond doubt is a problem for me. I like to think I have sworn it off for good but you never know when a weak moment will have you once again, head up the ass, and way beyond doubt. But, knock on wood, I have avoided taking a single sip of that poison for two and a half years now. Even have a medallion.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#67  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 08, 2011 11:26 pm

Teuton wrote:
DrWho wrote:Can one doubt that which is self-evident?



One can at least doubt that which is apparently self-evidently or necessarily true, since appearance and reality needn't coincide.
(


But if you think that there can be an error then the error must be backed with it's contrastive non-error and it sort of self proves doesn't it? The only thing meaningful has to have inbuilt some doubt and an equal measure of truth.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#68  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 08, 2011 11:45 pm

Pebble wrote:Philosophers seem to accept the existence of self as a cognitive being as the only unquestionable fact and work from there. All sorts of trouble start from this point - once you deny all external reality, then standard proofs become meaningless and only ones internal thoughts are held to be incontrovertable - this is obviously nonsense - but starts with the premise that the self is the only thing that cannot be doubted.


Yes. The crap thinking starts there. The idea that they can parcel it out and choose the mind and not the other.


I wonder if this is the crux of the problem - there is no proof that I exist. I may simply be a projection of another entity - in essence part of anothers dream or mental construct, indeed not necessarily a being's construct - I could simply be a character within a computer program. So how can I assert without a shadow of a doubt that I exist?


You could be but this presupposes programs and computers and programmers and in essence an objective reality anyway which puts you back to the simple place we should have stuck with.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#69  Postby Paul Almond » Jun 08, 2011 11:56 pm

surreptitious57 wrote:You would have to initially determine beyond all doubt that your existence is not an illusion but reality. Since that is impossible to do, then proving it is too. We could be highly sophisticated mental constructs of a superior artificial intelligence beyond our basic comprehension and we would not be any the wiser. Now no one actually believes that, but proving it is not possible.


Before I start here, I will be clear that I am not arguing for either the idea that the everyday world is a computer simulation, or the holographic universe idea – two ideas which I will discuss merely as examples of scenarios in which some people might question our status, or the status of the everyday world as “real”.

I have issues with the idea that if we find out that our perceptions are explained in some "strange" way, such as that we are actually software running in some alien supercomputer, or a supercomputer built by 30th century humans, etc. – then that means that our existence is an "illusion". What it is about this that would make it an illusion? There would be the apparent, everyday world that we experience, and underlying that apparent world would be a description of reality in terms of switches turning on or off, electrons or photons moving around, etc. – whatever this computer is doing. When I have the perception of going to buy a newspaper, I would know that the real explanation is that this switch turns on, and that switch turns off, etc. – and even my thoughts would map onto some kind of description of what is going on inside this machine. But how is that profoundly different from how we already regard things? I already know that my experience of going to buy a newspaper is the experience of an apparent world explained in terms of chemistry, particle physics, quantum mechanics, etc. Whether I am in a computer simulation or not, there is an underlying description – an explanation - of the world in which I live which looks nothing like that world – and from which the everyday world is abstracted.

Intentionality

I suggest that a lot of people would say that a computer-simulated world would be an "illusion" partly because we are used to thinking in terms of intentionality behind the appearance of something meaning that it is "fake": we are used to thinking in terms of people making things up and deceiving us.

Here is another way of looking at this. Suppose you were a very gifted, but profoundly autistic scientist. I do not mean just autistic in the sense of something like Asperger's syndrome, but really autistic: you are so autistic that the concept of "another mind out there" means nothing to you. You live in a world of things – not a world of people. You are very gifted at making sense of the world in an impersonal kind of way. You understand how atoms make molecules, which make cells, which make brains, which do all these complicated things that go on around you, but the idea of understanding any of this in terms of "other people's minds" is alien to you. Now, suppose you are presented with two possible explanations of the world. The first explanation is one in terms of physics: stuff exists which does stuff, and it causes things to appear as they are. The second explanation is one in which the world is a computer simulation, but the idea of a computer as some machine built by "somebody" for some kind of motive is meaningless to you. This second description would have to be presented to you in such a way that any references to intentionality, entities designing computers, etc. were removed. Instead, it would just be reduced to a description in which stuff exists which is doing stuff which causes the appearance of the world. Someone less autistic than you might look at this and say, "Ah! that model is actually describing a computer-simulated reality!" but this would not occur to you at all. That would be a particular interpretation of the model which is beyond you. To you, both models would be essentially physics models. This does not mean that the computer-simulation model is as plausible as the "conventional" one: it may be more or less plausible depending on the circumstances, what evidence you have, and what philosophical arguments you think should be taken seriously. However, the fact remains that it would not automatically lack any "realness" that the more conventional model lacks. One interpretation of the physics description is that intentional agents are down there, somewhere, buried beneath the fabric of the world – just as lots of stuff is down there, buried beneath the fabric of the world, in any modern scientific model. If a computer-simulated world is necessarily a shadow, then surely any world produced by something "lower level" is necessarily a shadow. (Plato's cave might come to mind here.) Now, suppose you decide that the computer-simulated-world model is more plausible – although you do not know, with your autism, that you have just accepted a simulation theory. Then, your autism is somehow cured and you have this sudden insight that other minds might exist "out there" - and that your physics model is actually describing a situation in which they play a part. Would you suddenly decide that your world is fake? That your experiences are "illusory"?

Holograms

Intentionality in explanations is one thing that may make people treat them as special cases, but there may be others. A well-known, speculative idea is the "holographic universe" model. (I will not bother, here, with whether or not it is true.) In the media this is often described as claiming that the world "is not real". Why? Because it describes an everyday world which is merely produced by something else? Again – so what? Why is this, in itself, equivalent to "fakeness"? We have known for a long time that the everyday world is contingent on something else anyway. So why do people seem to associate the holographic universe idea with fakeness? I suggest that one big reason is that we all know what the word "hologram" means in everyday life: it means things that are not really there. As with "intentionality" we think of holograms in terms of "fakeness".

Space and Contingency

In both the situations I discussed above, there is another reason why things may seem "fake" to people. We may be used to the idea that the world that we know is based on something that does not look much like it: that solid objects are based on atoms, that atoms are based on more basic particles and various physical forces, etc. Most people still have the idea, however, that at least all of this occurs in the same underlying "space" which exists all the way down - that there is some kind of one-to-one mapping between coordinates of things in the everyday world and what is causing the appearance of them. For example, if I look at a table I know it is contingent on more basic things. I can look at one corner and say it is at coordinates (X1,Y1,Z1)and I can look at the other corner and say it is at coordinates (X2,Y2,Z2). Many people, if they accept that an underlying model applies, would probably think it should still be one in which a space exists, and something exists at coordinates (X1,Y1,Z1)in that space to give the appearance of the first corner, and something exists in at coordinates (X2,Y2,Z2)to give the appearance of the second corner. Maybe the corners are just whirling masses of particles interacting by fields with each other, but they are still doing it at (X1,Y1,Z1)and (X2,Y2,Z2) or maybe reality, at a low level becomes something other than particles, but whatever it is that reality is doing, we might still expect it to be doing it at (X1,Y1,Z1)and (X2,Y2,Z2). This expectation of how the “real world” should act seems very strong in people. Kant’s conceptual schemes come to mind for me here. To many people, it may be hard to conceive of the world being explained without the low-level explanation having at least this kind of one-to-one coordinate mapping – and we could say the same about time (which I left out of all this for simplicity).

Both the simulation hypothesis and the holographic universe that I mentioned above, however, suggest just this kind of reality: one in which the one-to-one mapping of coordinates in the everyday world onto low-level physics gets lost in translation somewhere on the way down. In the case of a computer simulation, it is clearly likely that the (X1,Y1,Z1) and (X2,Y2,Z2)of the corners of the table do not have to correspond to things at similar coordinates in the actual computer. For example, if the computer has been built on Earth in the 30th century, the computer system doing the simulating could be distributed over the planet. One corner of the table might be simulated by a computer in London, while another corner of the table might be simulated by a computer in New York. It may even be meaningless to talk about “where” a corner is simulated: things might just be distributed all over the place. Even for a videogame, running on the PC of today, most people will see that the 3D videogame world does not map onto some actual 3D structure inside the computer. The holographic universe model makes this, if anything, even more explicit, because it tells exactly how the coordinates are messed up. In this model, our 3D world is produced on a 2D surface, but this does not mean that each corner of the table has a “real” coordinate on the 2D surface. Each corner would be produced by the entire surface, so that the (X1,Y1,Z1) of the first corner would not be explainable in terms of any (X,Y,Z) or (X,Y) at all: the “information” describing this corner would be distributed over the entire 2D surface. Here, the one-to-one mapping has been explicitly lost. About the only thing left is some kind of space – but it is not space as we know it. In both the simulation hypothesis and the holographic universe, there might be an underlying space (and we can question even this for a simulation hypothesis, possibly considering Peter Strawson’s articulation of how conscious experience – and by implication the conscious experience of something doing the simulating – could be imagined without any perception of space) but it is not our space.

Maybe this idea of one-to-one mapping “all the way down” is important to people when they decide whether the world is “real”? Maybe, in people’s conceptual schemes, concepts like space are so important that the loss of that, at some ultimate reality, is the loss of everything – the very fabric of reality – the ability of the world to be supported by anything at all? If so, I would question this. Why should we demand that one-to-one mapping is needed all the way down for the world to be real? The idea has already taken a bit of a knock from “conventional” science. Einstein’s general relativity tells us that Euclidean ideas of geometry are merely an approximation – meaning that the way we think of space in everyday life is just an approximation. I am aware, of course, that this does not mean that if we measured the (X1,Y1,Z1)and (X2,Y2,Z2)positions for the table, that this would somehow disagree with general relativity. (The point is that our “everyday perception” of how space is “working” would disagree slightly from the general relativity version: in that sense, we have already started to lose some of the “one-to-one mapping” on the way down – it is just that the coordinates may not be too well defined in our everyday perception before we actually take the measurements.) Quantum mechanics is also relevant here. Objects seem to have well-defined coordinates in the everyday world, but this idea seems to start getting questionable on the way down. Both general relativity and quantum mechanics seem to be situations in which the one-to-one mapping is compromised quite weakly: they both still seem to involve a space existing in which coordinates of things map onto the everyday world to some degree. However, we seem to accept this without any real concern about whether the everyday world has become “unreal”. We could imagine situations in which the one-to-one mapping is reduced in degrees, so that what exists at a lower level corresponds to objects existing at the (X,Y,Z) coordinates (and possibly time coordinates) in the everyday world to progressively lesser degrees, with the low-level description of reality ultimately not containing anything that could be meaningfully mapped onto the spatial and temporal coordinates and relationships of everyday life in any intuitively obvious way. If this made the everyday world unreal, when would the line have been crossed? Is there a line at all? Is the world supposed to become progressively less real as the one-to-one mapping is gradually lost? I suggest that this is untenable – and the arbitrariness of where to draw the line should support this. We are used to the idea that some concepts become meaningless in a low level understanding of nature: tables and trees vanish and become particles. We do not tend to say that this makes things “less real”, so why make a special case for space and/or time? If space and/or time turned out to be contingent on something else, why should this have implications for the “reality” of the everyday world any more than the contingency of anything else would have?

Conclusion

What I have said does not take away the issue of what is real. Questions can still be asked, for example, about the reality of the world in a computer simulation in which only a small amount of it is simulated in detail and the rest is somehow statistically computed. Here, issues of measure might be relevant. The issue of the “reality” of the everyday world, or of other things, in various scenarios that we might imagine may be a messier issue than it first appears.
Last edited by Paul Almond on Jun 09, 2011 12:06 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#70  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 09, 2011 12:02 am

Little Idiot wrote:
Pebble wrote:
Little Idiot wrote:You cant assert that the self exists without doubt.
Thats why I didnt include 'self' or I in my proposition, I said 'there is awareness of something' rather than 'I am aware of something' for this very reason.


How do you know there is awareness? Any awareness could be an 'illusion' within a model.


Even if the awareness is an illusion within a model, its still the illusion 'of awareness' and so is a form of awareness, so there is still awareness.

Lets consider a couple of examples, the case of human experience;
1. To contradict the statement that I make regarding my own experiences as consisting of 'awareness of something' you'd need to claim access to my awareness, which is impossible, therefore to contradict my claim is unreasonable.
2. To contradict the statement that I make regarding the general case, such as your own, of experience as consisting of 'awareness of something' you'd need to deny your own awareness, and you cant do this without reacting to my statement, thus demonstrating awareness of me and my statement to which you are responding. Therefore to contradict this is self-refuting.

Note I do not claim that you do have awareness and experience, I cant know that, this is refering to the general case of 'any human who has experience' - in other words; for any human who has experience, the experience consists of 'awareness of something'


Count how many assumptions and bits of knowledge you need to make such an argument. If that is too daunting a task then drop all that shit and just figure out how you come to a concept of 'aware of something' and count those concepts and all the concepts needed to back them.

If it's still too much pain then tell me how you come by this 'something'? Some thing? All things? No thing? Lot's of things don't you think?

My counter to you is simple. I certainly believe I am aware of something. My charge is that you cannot take that simple truth without taking the truth of an objective reality along side it. You must take all of existence and all of knowledge at once and cannot just pick a part and claim it has some special undoubtableness. That is simply thinking a thing through only to back a belief not to think it for thinking's sake. In other words half-thinking or more emotively half-assed-thinking or thinking out your ass.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#71  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 09, 2011 12:07 am

Paul Almond wrote:...
I have issues with the idea that if we find out that our perceptions are explained in some "strange" way, such as that we are actually software running in some alien supercomputer, or a supercomputer built by 30th century humans, etc. – then that means that our existence is an "illusion". What it is about this that would make it an illusion? There would be the apparent, everyday world that we experience, and underlying that apparent world would be a description of reality in terms of switches turning on or off, electrons or photons moving around, etc. – whatever this computer is doing. When I have the perception of going to buy a newspaper, I would know that the real explanation is that this switch turns on, and that switch turns off, etc. – and even my thoughts would map onto some kind of description of what is going on inside this machine. But how is that profoundly different from how we already regard things? I already know that my experience of going to buy a newspaper is the experience of an apparent world explained in terms of chemistry, particle physics, quantum mechanics, etc. Whether I am in a computer simulation or not, there is an underlying description – an explanation - of the world in which I live which looks nothing like that world – and from which the everyday world is abstracted.
...

:cheers: Yes!

It would be like if we next discover that we are really superstrings or some such thing and wouldn't make a spot of difference to the reality that is right in front of us. No matter how many stacked turtles you illuminate you are still on top of one.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#72  Postby jamest » Jun 09, 2011 12:30 am

DrWho wrote:
jamest wrote:Nothing is self-evident is a self-evident claim.

The thread title is reducible to: Are there any absolute truths?

... One cannot claim that there aren't any since one's claim becomes self-negating.

Further, 'doubt' is not a very useful concept to utilise here since it amounts to "I don't know".

There's really no difference between this thread and the doc's other thread. Superfluous, I would say.


This is an open discussion. I'm not arguing in favor of or against anythnig. I'm just curious. The definitions that I offered are only intended to start the discussion. Feel free to offer an alternative definition. Do you have a better definition? Do you think anything is self-evident.

Self-evident truths must be irreducible, irrefutable by reason, and [therefore] metaphysical... is what I would go with.

The reason why I think that self-evident truths must be metaphysical, is that observational/physical truths are reducible (an observed thing is not a thing in itself) and therefore refutable. Indeed, they are potentially refutable regardless of whether they are reducible.

As to whether I think anything is self-evident:

There are observations/experiences and thoughts, therefore something is.

... There cannot be observations/experiences and thoughts, without an observer/experiencer/thinker. The conclusion is irrefutable by reason in relation to the premise, since observed entities and thoughts cannot have a stand-alone existence.
Further, saying that [therefore] 'something is', instead of [therefore] 'I am', satisfies the irreducible requirement of my definition. This is not so with 'I' - as Descartes found to his cost. There is an acknowledgement implicit in the use of the word 'something' that 'I' may not be the entity/thing that is doing the observing and thinking. Nevertheless, something is.
Lastly, who here (whatever thing it is that you essentially are) can deny that they experience/observe a phenomenon which they also think about? To me, such a denial is insane. Even a physicalist/materialist/eliminativist cannot account for intended interaction without the necessity of having information about other things and the capacity to compute what those intended interactions will be. But what goes around comes around:

There is information and computation, therefore something is.

The bottom-line: Something is... is a self-evident truth.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#73  Postby Teuton » Jun 09, 2011 1:22 am

jamest wrote:
Self-evident truths must be irreducible, irrefutable by reason, and [therefore] metaphysical... is what I would go with.


Most self-evident truths aren't metaphysical truths but logical or conceptual truths such as <Parents have children>.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#74  Postby tnjrp » Jun 09, 2011 5:38 am

SpeedOfSound wrote:Assumption? I think not. If you can utter this sentence and then look a little closer at how you can conjure these meanings there isn't anything left to assume. If you can ask it then it is.
I have a bit of doubt that solipsism is this easy to counter.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#75  Postby Pebble » Jun 09, 2011 6:03 am

Teuton wrote:
Pebble wrote:
Why should any statement be considered hierarchically more valid just because it is experience or sensory independent? Would it not make more sense to assert that the highest form of validation is empirical?


Well, that's the good old rationalism vs. empiricism debate.
Empiricists deny at least that synthetic propositions can be justified a priori, i.e. nonempirically. (That's why they don't like metaphysics.)


From above link.

"Most forms of rationalism involve notable commitments to other philosophical positions. One is a commitment to the denial of scepticism for at least some area of knowledge. If we claim to know some truths by intuition or deduction or to have some innate knowledge, we obviously reject scepticism with regard to those truths."

"How reason is superior needs explanation, and rationalists have offered different accounts. One view, generally associated with Descartes (Rules for the Direction of our Native Intelligence, Rules II and III, pp.1-4), is that what we know a priori is certain, beyond even the slightest doubt, while what we believe, or even know, on the basis of sense experience is at least somewhat uncertain. Another view, generally associated with Plato (Republic 479e-484c), locates the superiority of a priori knowledge in the objects known. What we know by reason alone, a Platonic form, say, is superior in an important metaphysical way, e.g. unchanging, eternal, perfect, a higher degree of being, to what are aware of through sense experience."

So basically rationalism is a form of belief in reason. We know that the senses can be fooled so reject sensory dependent information (rather than making allowances), but trust reason - which we also know to be faulty!
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#76  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 09, 2011 6:33 am

tnjrp wrote:
SpeedOfSound wrote:Assumption? I think not. If you can utter this sentence and then look a little closer at how you can conjure these meanings there isn't anything left to assume. If you can ask it then it is.
I have a bit of doubt that solipsism is this easy to counter.


Solipsism, idealism, whatever is the crap of the day is not easy to counter because it's criers are not held to the standard that materialism is. That is, materialism is required to explain everything while these woo-waddlers are let go to use all the knowledge of an objective world and science to then reject the existence of these things.

I want to know HOW y'all know that 'I am aware' or 'experiences are only in my mind'. But not in a material world! Nope. That is being rejected so nothing from it is evidence for the case.

Now if the would-be philosopher is held to standard then it is this easy to counter.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#77  Postby ughaibu » Jun 09, 2011 6:59 am

SpeedOfSound wrote:materialism is required to explain everything
If that's the case, then materialism fails.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#78  Postby SpeedOfSound » Jun 09, 2011 7:10 am

ughaibu wrote:
SpeedOfSound wrote:materialism is required to explain everything
If that's the case, then materialism fails.


Good thing it's not the case then.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#79  Postby jamest » Jun 09, 2011 8:31 am

Teuton wrote:
jamest wrote:
Self-evident truths must be irreducible, irrefutable by reason, and [therefore] metaphysical... is what I would go with.


Most self-evident truths aren't metaphysical truths but logical or conceptual truths such as <Parents have children>.

That might be how some view such truths, but in relation to my own definition both parents and children are observed/experienced/discerned entities, which means that they are reducible entities... which means that they are not self-evident truths, imo.

As an analogy to explain my position, one might also say that Bugs Bunny eats carrots [is a self-evident truth] - but we all actually know that both Bugs Bunny and the carrots that 'he' appears to eat are reducible to an altogether different phenomenon, so that 'Bugs Bunny eats carrots' is not actually true. So, because both parents & children are similarly reducible, the same principles of judgement must be applied to the statement 'parents have children'.

In other words, I don't think that the definition of self-evident truths you draw from, suffices.
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Re: Is anything Self-Evident

 
 

Re: Is anything Self-Evident

#80  Postby Pebble » Jun 09, 2011 9:01 am

jamest wrote:As an analogy to explain my position, one might also say that Bugs Bunny eats carrots [is a self-evident truth] - but we all actually know that both Bugs Bunny and the carrots that 'he' appears to eat are reducible to an altogether different phenomenon, so that 'Bugs Bunny eats carrots' is not actually true.


That is cheating - you are using empirical evidence to show that sensory information is faulty - if reason is the only true medium - you must use reason alone to prove that bugs bunny does not eat carrots - remembering that relying on reason alone you do not have any experience of rabbits or carrots.
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