jamest wrote:We're not trying to ban jokes now, are we? C'mon. Enough's enough.
Well, quantum woo is one thing. Skepticism of the Big Ban theory is quite another.
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jamest wrote:We're not trying to ban jokes now, are we? C'mon. Enough's enough.
DrWho wrote:QM is not well understood...lot's of unanswered questions. I think it's a bit premature to say what's a likely explanation and what is not.
susu.exp wrote:DrWho wrote:QM is not well understood...lot's of unanswered questions. I think it's a bit premature to say what's a likely explanation and what is not.
That's a bit handwavy, don't you think? We do know that local realism is false. We can also show that some forms of non-local realism are false. Nobody has proposed a non-local realist theory that doesn't have causal loops and it's not at all clear that such a theory is even possible.
On second though, that's still too weak. Any non-local model without causal loops is equivalent to a local model. We can rule out local realism, so we can also rule out non-local realism without causal loops.
DrWho wrote:susu.exp wrote:DrWho wrote:QM is not well understood...lot's of unanswered questions. I think it's a bit premature to say what's a likely explanation and what is not.
That's a bit handwavy, don't you think? We do know that local realism is false. We can also show that some forms of non-local realism are false. Nobody has proposed a non-local realist theory that doesn't have causal loops and it's not at all clear that such a theory is even possible.
On second though, that's still too weak. Any non-local model without causal loops is equivalent to a local model. We can rule out local realism, so we can also rule out non-local realism without causal loops.
Well, that's quite a conclusion, are you sure that every competent physicist would agree with that claim? I'm not. I don't even think the meaning of deterministic or stochastic universe is entirely clear. Both propositions can be formulated in different ways.
For instance, I take determinism to mean that the outcome of any prediction is necessitated by the initial conditions the system. On this view, determinism is the foundation for the operation of all scientific law. QM make predictions in the form of probabilities, but these probabilities are determined (necessitated) by scientific law applied to initial conditions. In this sense, QM probability is deterministic. One critical question remaining to ask: Is subatomic activity completely or incompletely deterministic?
QM phenomena could not be purely stochastic because then nothing would be even probable. But there is such eagerness to call attention to the part that is random, that the non-random part (the actually useful) rarely gets attention.
SpeedOfSound wrote:
I agree with you here. I'm not convinced that just because our calculations or measurements are probabilistic that it rules out determinism.
I also think the issue of locality has nothing to do with this.
SpeedOfSound wrote:oh yeah? And just how do you know that? Please offer your definition of realism and it's implications.
DrWho wrote:Well, that's quite a conclusion, are you sure that every competent physicist would agree with that claim? I'm not. I don't even think the meaning of deterministic or stochastic universe is entirely clear. Both propositions can be formulated in different ways.
DrWho wrote:For instance, I take determinism to mean that the outcome of any prediction is necessitated by the initial conditions the system. On this view, determinism is the foundation for the operation of all scientific law. QM make predictions in the form of probabilities, but these probabilities are determined (necessitated) by scientific law applied to initial conditions. In this sense, QM probability is deterministic. One critical question remaining to ask: Is subatomic activity completely or incompletely deterministic?
DrWho wrote:QM phenomena could not be purely stochastic because then nothing would be even probable. But there is such eagerness to call attention to the part that is random, that the non-random part (the actually useful) rarely gets attention.
susu.exp wrote:SpeedOfSound wrote:oh yeah? And just how do you know that? Please offer your definition of realism and it's implications.
Experimental violations of Bells inequality. Realism here means that objects have fixed properties for all possible measurements prior to any measurements being performed. Locality means that for any event A that influences an event B, event B can not also influence A. For any local realistic theory one can show that Bells inequality holds. Which means that the observed violations of the inequality falsify local realism.
SpeedOfSound wrote:Which simply means that measurement is a part of what's real.
SpeedOfSound wrote:Further that our model or geometry is not all there is to it.
SpeedOfSound wrote:And I still have the question: What exactly isn't real about what we find according to the evidence we have?
No! Not what I am saying at all. Local realist theory? What the hell is that?susu.exp wrote:SpeedOfSound wrote:Which simply means that measurement is a part of what's real.
I'm not sure what you are getting at there.SpeedOfSound wrote:Further that our model or geometry is not all there is to it.
Bells inequality applies to all local realistic theories. This includes those we haven't come up with yet. What you say here basically is that you think there might be a local realist theory for which Bells inequality doesn't hold. That's a bit like holding out for an even prime number greater than 2...
SpeedOfSound wrote:And I still have the question: What exactly isn't real about what we find according to the evidence we have?
This doesn't parse. I just told you what realism means. This doesn't seem to be related to that definition at all. Realism in "local realism" means the same as counterfactual definedness.
susu.exp wrote:
1. Experimental violations of Bells inequality.
2. Realism here means that objects have fixed properties for all possible measurements prior to any measurements being performed.
3.Locality means that for any event A that influences an event B, event B can not also influence A.
4. For any local realistic theory one can show that Bells inequality holds.
5. Which means that the observed violations of the inequality falsify local realism.
...
susu.exp wrote: What the fuck is a "non-random part"?.
SpeedOfSound wrote: No! Not what I am saying at all. Local realist theory? What the hell is that?
SpeedOfSound wrote:You just told me what you think realism means to you. Not necessarily what it means.
SpeedOfSound wrote:Why would a philosophical notion, realism, have something to say about how the science turns out? Realism means that there is something and it has fuck-all to do with our minds. Nothing else.
SpeedOfSound wrote:First note that you are claiming realism is experimentally declared false unless it violates a theory? Is that what the first line means?
SpeedOfSound wrote:Line two is gibberish. It is all the rage to think that there really are realists who think like this though. But read it a few times out loud and you'll see how ridiculous this is.
To conclude, I would say that not only is a refutation of determinism
essentially impossible, but not the slightest argument
in favour of that idea is to be found in modern physics, whether
in chaos theory or in quantum mechanics. What is strange is that
Bohm’s theory is so widely unknown and that the mere existence of
such a theory is so widely considered impossible. John Bell was one
of the most lucid proponent of Bohm’s theory and noboby protested
better than him against that state of affairs. He exlains that, when
he was a student, he had read Born’s book, Natural Philosophy of
Cause and Chance [4], where, on the basis of a misunderstanding
of the significance of von Neumann’s no hidden variable theorem,
he was making the claim quoted above36. But, as Bell says, “in
1952, I saw the impossible done”; and that was Bohm’s theory. He
continues:
But then why had Born not told me of this ‘pilot wave’?
If only to point out what was wrong with it? Why did von
Neumann not consider it? More extraordinarily, why did
people go on producing ‘impossibility’ proofs, after 1952,
and as recently as 1978? When even Pauli, Rosenfeld, and
Heisenberg, could produce no more devastating criticism
of Bohm’s version than to brand it as ‘metaphysical’ and
‘ideological’? Why is the pilot wave picture ignored in text
books? Should it not be taught, not as the only way, but as
an antidote to the prevailing complacency? To show that
vagueness, subjectivity, and indeterminism, are not forced
on us by experimental facts, but by deliberate theoretical
choice? [2], p. 160.
The above is plain false. Conway and Kochen's strong free will theorem proves that if physicists can choose the settings of their measuring apparatus, then determinism is false, according to modern physics. However, determinism is a metaphysical thesis, regardless of the fact that there is no reason to think that we live in a determined world and a whole string of ways to construct arguments against the claim that we do, we cannot demonstrate the fact physically.DrWho wrote:Jean BricmontI would say that not only is a refutation of determinism
essentially impossible, but not the slightest argument
in favour of that idea is to be found in modern physics
http://www.dogma.lu/txt/JB-Determinism.pdf
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