Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

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Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#1  Postby MeCagoEnCristo » Dec 30, 2016 6:37 am

Hello.
I just watched the full debate again. It, along with Krauss’ talk the night before, is one of my favourites of all time.

So many religious people keep saying that “something cannot come out of nothing” as a matter of fact. So I want to know if his comment is a good example of creation ex nihilo and a valid counterargument to shut them up for good?

Here is my transcription of the relevant part of what he said in this Stockholm debate (at 00:26:00. The link should already point to that time).
https://youtu.be/p97Z8VYk_TM?t=1557

“But it is a question of interest to the philosophers, I agree, but it's not the question that the physicists want to answer.
… And it really is nothing.
When each of those electrons emits a photon -that shines on your beautiful face, not mine- that photon didn’t exist!
It wasn’t there. It wasn’t hiding in the electron… It wasn’t hiding in the atom. It was spontaneously created! And people don’t have any problem with that.. that that photon was created from nothing, it didn’t exist before it was created.
What I try to show is that that can be true for our whole universe… and more, if you ask what would be the properties of a universe which was so created, it would have the properties of the universe we see…” .


I think it’s more complicated than that, but is it fundamentally true, or is it too simplified? Please feel free to expand on it.

Are there other ex nihilo creation examples that you could cite, please?

What about uncaused causes? I’ve read that particle decay (radiation) is totally random and uncaused. Is this really so? Do you have other examples?

Thank you for any comments.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#2  Postby twistor59 » Dec 30, 2016 8:27 am

MeCagoEnCristo wrote:
So many religious people keep saying that “something cannot come out of nothing” as a matter of fact. So I want to know if his comment is a good example of creation ex nihilo and a valid counterargument to shut them up for good?


You mean the comment about the photon?

No, it's not an example of ex-nihilo creation. Energy and momentum were conserved in the "creation" process. There was stuff there before the photon existed and there is the same amount of stuff after it. All that has changed is the form of the stuff.

None of the current "universe from nothing" arguments are strong enough. I think we'll have to wait until there is a better understanding of quantum gravity and the measurement problem unfortunately.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#3  Postby Sendraks » Dec 30, 2016 10:08 am

The creation ex nihilo arguments in respect of the universe work on the assumption that the universe started from nothing, but we don't actually have any evidence to suggest that the universe came from nothing.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#4  Postby zoon » Dec 30, 2016 10:13 am

MeCagoEnCristo wrote:
..........
What about uncaused causes? I’ve read that particle decay (radiation) is totally random and uncaused. Is this really so? Do you have other examples?

In the matter of uncaused causes, I find myself going back to Bertrand Russell in a 1948 discussion, where he argues, I think correctly, that scientists look for causes, but it doesn't follow that scientists assume causes are necessarily there to be found. In Russell's words: "a physicist looks for causes; that does not necessarily imply that there are causes everywhere. A man may look for gold without assuming that there is gold everywhere; if he finds gold, well and good, if he doesn't he's had bad luck. The same is true when the physicists look for causes...".

From the transcript of the 1948 radio debate between Bertrand Russell (R) and Father F.C.Copleston (C) on the existence of God (the whole transcript is here):
R: That's always assuming that not only every particular thing in the world, but the world as a whole must have a cause. For that assumption I see no ground whatever. If you'll give me a ground I'll listen to it.

C: Well, the series of events is either caused or it's not caused. If it is caused, there must obviously be a cause outside the series. If it's not caused then it's sufficient to itself, and if it's sufficient to itself it is what I call necessary. But it can't be necessary since each member is contingent, and we've agreed that the total has no reality apart from its members, therefore, it can't be necessary. Therefore, it can't be -- uncaused -- therefore it must have a cause. And I should like to observe in passing that the statement "the world is simply there and is inexplicable" can't be got out of logical analysis.

R: I don't want to seem arrogant, but it does seem to me that I can conceive things that you say the human mind can't conceive. As for things not having a cause, the physicists assure us that individual quantum transitions in atoms have no cause.

C: Well, I wonder now whether that isn't simply a temporary inference.

R: It may be, but it does show that physicists' minds can conceive it.

C: Yes, I agree, some scientists -- physicists -- are willing to allow for indetermination within a restricted field. But very many scientists are not so willing. I think that Professor Dingle, of London University, maintains that the Heisenberg uncertainty principle tells us something about the success (or the lack of it) of the present atomic theory in correlating observations, but not about nature in itself, and many physicists would accept this view. In any case, I don't see how physicists can fail to accept the theory in practice, even if they don't do so in theory. I cannot see how science could be conducted on any other assumption than that of order and intelligibility in nature. The physicist presupposes, at least tacitly, that there is some sense in investigating nature and looking for the causes of events, just as the detective presupposes that there is some sense in looking for the cause of a murder. The metaphysician assumes that there is sense in looking for the reason or cause of phenomena, and, not being a Kantian, I consider that the metaphysician is as justified in his assumption as the physicist. When Sartre, for example, says that the world is gratuitous, I think that he has not sufficiently considered what is implied by "gratuitous."

R: I think -- there seems to me a certain unwarrantable extension here; a physicist looks for causes; that does not necessarily imply that there are causes everywhere. A man may look for gold without assuming that there is gold everywhere; if he finds gold, well and good, if he doesn't he's had bad luck. The same is true when the physicists look for causes. As for Sartre, I don't profess to know what he means, and I shouldn't like to be thought to interpret him, but for my part, I do think the notion of the world having an explanation is a mistake. I don't see why one should expect it to have, and I think you say about what the scientist assumes is an over-statement.

C: Well, it seems to me that the scientist does make some such assumption. When he experiments to find out some particular truth, behind that experiment lies the assumption that the universe is not simply discontinuous. There is the possibility of finding out a truth by experiment. The experiment may be a bad one, it may lead to no result, or not to the result that he wants, but that at any rate there is the possibility, through experiment, of finding out the truth that he assumes. And that seems to me to assume an ordered and intelligible universe.

R: I think you're generalizing more than is necessary. Undoubtedly the scientist assumes that this sort of thing is likely to be found and will often be found. He does not assume that it will be found, and that's a very important matter in modem physics.

C: Well, I think he does assume or is bound to assume it tacitly in practice. It may be that, to quote Professor Haldane, "when I Iight the gas under the kettle, some of the water molecules will fly off as vapor, and there is no way of finding out which will do so," but it doesn't follow necessarily that the idea of chance must be introduced except in relation to our knowledge.

R: No it doesn't -- at least if I may believe what he says. He's finding out quite a lot of things -- the scientist is finding out quite a lot of things that are happening in the world, which are, at first, beginnings of causal chains -- first causes which haven't in themselves got causes. He does not assume that everything has a cause.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#5  Postby Rumraket » Dec 30, 2016 11:39 am

First of all, there isn't any evidence that the universe actually began. I've written about this before, see here: http://www.rationalskepticism.org/post1793078.html#p1793078
Rumraket wrote:
sturmgewehr wrote:
Rumraket wrote:Stuhrm, I will be back later to address some fundamental epistemological issues you have with the status of the classic BBT. Very quick hint: it is not superior, in terms of what evidence there is to support it, to any other contemporary cosmological model. There is no empirical justification for believing the classic BBT, especially not OVER any other contemporary model.


OK, I will be waiting for your reply, it would be good if u could suggest me some literature which is gonna point me to the right direction in understanding all this mess about the beginning of the universe, and, thanks a lot for being patient with me, thanks to u and the rest of the guys who have been trying to evince the issue to me.

To understand what we actually have evidence for, you have to understand a little bit of the history behind big bang cosmology. It is a deep misunderstanding to think that the classic big bang theory has some kind of special evidential support over other contemporary theories. It doesn't, it simply came first and primarily for that reason, has been the most cited and most generally accepted theory for the early universe and it's origin.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_Big_Bang_theory
This gives a decent overview of the history of big bang cosmology, why it was invented in the first place and what it says. This is important, because understanding the history behind the different ideas tells you what evidence lead to their proposals.

Basically what happened was that two independent lines of evidence implied that the universe was smaller (not that it had an ultimate beginning) in the past, than it is now.

1) One was that Einstein's general relativity implied that space had to be either expanding or contracting, it would not remain static. Is this actually evidence that time began? Nope.

2) The other was the observation that galaxies are moving way from each other at a speed proportional to their mutual distance. Having observed this, Edwin Hubble all the way back in 1929, put the observed redshifts of distant galaxies in a logarithmic coordinate system and drew a straight line through them. The obvious implication of this line was that everything had to have been closer together in the past. How close together is of course the big question and it wasn't lost on anyone.

Basically what happened then, was that physicists went with Hubble's graph in one form or another (Hubble got the rate of expansion off by about 10%, which wasn't too bad), and simply extended the line so far back in time they could until they arrived at a point. Literally, everything would have had to have been collected into a single point infinitely small. Now obviously, the drawing of this line all the way back to a time when the universe would have been contracted into a single point, is fundamentally an extrapolation and nothing more. Extending your data points beyond what you observe is to extrapolate, by definition.

Anyway, having done this, physicists then went on to ask themselves: "supposing space was really fucking small, hot, and dense in the past, but subsequently expanded to the size we see today, what would we expect to see?".

They then went calculating, using their understanding of the physics of atoms and the very small (quantum mechanics and atomic physics) and arrived at two major predictions:
They would expect to see a specific distribution in the elements available in the early universe. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Bang_nucleosynthesis

They would expect to see a more or less uniform band of radiation, emanating from all directions, of a certain temperature in the microwave range. The cosmic microwave background radiation. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmic_microwave_background

These were at the time the two major predictions of ... what, exactly? A hot and dense state - hot and dense enough that at one point, all matter in the universe was in the form of high-energy radiation.

While initially the idea had been to extend Hubble's law all the way to a singularity (the infinitely small point of infinite temperature and density), there is no requirement that there ever was a singularity (this is still just an extrapolation), in order for us to be able to explain that the universe was hot and dense enough for all matter to have existed in the form of radiation.

We have no actual evidence that the universe was a singularity, that it was that small. We have no actual evidence of an ultimate beginning. The evidence we have is the cosmic microwave background radiation and the distribution of light elements in the early universe.

Now, since that time, other lines of evidence has been added, still supporting that the universe was hot and dense enough to create the CMBR and the distribution of light elements, such as early galaxy formation and the large-scale structure of the universe (how galaxies are arranged into clusters, which are spread out more or less in a "network" pattern). http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Bang#Observational_evidence

None of this evidence implies that the extrapolation all the way to a singularity is justified. Not to mention that to go a step further and suggest that at some point, there wasn't even any singularity at all, but a philosophical void of non-being, is to make shit up wholecloth.

What is even worse, we know that general relativity, the very theory of spacetime that predicts that the universe should not remain static, actually breaks down under sufficiently hot and dense states. This means general relativity is incomplete, something is missing. So we can't use general relativity to argue that there was a singularity, or that time has an ultimate beginning.

So when we're talking about the classic big bang theory, and the evidence for it, it's important to be specific and say what we mean. We can say there definitely was a big bang. What does this mean? It means that the universe was certainly extremely small at one point, and that all observed matter and energy was packed into this very hot and dense state - and subsequently expanded very rapidly while cooling off. Where it came from, whether it was even smaller still, we simply do not know. That last extension of the line in Hubble's coordinaty system, back to a supposed t=0, is an extrapolation. It isn't actually required for the theory to work, and there are many other suggestions that propose entirely different scenarios for the early universe. Early meaning the time before the formation of the CMBR and big bang nucleosynthesis.

Here comes the important point: The competing models to the classic bing bang theory (with it's singularity extrapolation) PREDICT THE SAME THINGS, POST-PLANCK-TIME, AS THE CLASSIC BIG BANG THEORY DOES:
1. The CMBR.
2. Distribution of light elements.
3. Large scale structures in the distribution of matter (galaxies, clusters, superclusters etc. etc.)
4. Galaxy formation etc.

So in this respect, they all have equal amounts of evidence for them. Because they all explain what we observe, at least to the degree of accuracy we have done the observations. There are differences between them, but they require even better and more accurate observations of the patterns in the CMBR and stuff like that, than current instruments have been able to detail.

So, since we have multiple different hypotheses that all explain the same set of observations, should we then really believe any particular one? No, we shouldn't. The classic bing bang model with an extrapolated singularity, was simply the first model on the scene. It made sense to do at the time, to draw the line through the data points and simply extend it all the way into a singularity and then ask that "what if?" question. But that is all it is, a line on a piece of paper. It is not itself evidence of a singularity. To have evidence of a singularity you'd have to derive predictions unique to a singularity and observationally confirm them. We have no such evidence.

So the state of modern cosmology is this: Shut up and calculate. Come up with theories, see if you can derive testable predictions. If you can, test them. We don't know what happened before the planck time, it's that simple.

But cosmologists are human beings, and some of them are religious and like everyone else, have their biases and their pet theories. And then there's religious apologists, who in their disengenous ways, like to quote cosmologists who support the classic big bang theory for whatever reason (either because it's the one that came first and therefore the one they first came to know about and all that, or... ), and through that try to present a false picture of some sort of consensus among cosmologists.

It's in effect an appeal to authority fallacy. But it's even worse, because their authority is synthetic, there is plenty of competition with the classic big bang extrapolation. Craig and company like to quote that shitty Barow and Tipler book endlessly, as if it constitutes an extant consensus on modern cosmology, and even worse, as if some kind of consensus on an extrapolation is evidence that that extrapolation is justified. Quick hint: it isn't. Either there is empirical evidence for it or there isn't, and there isn't.

So what should you believe? At this point in time, only that the universe was very small, hot and dense, about 13.8 billion years ago, and subsequently expanded very rapidly, cooled off, matter started forming etc. etc.
That's it. We don't know what happened before this, there are many competing models. Heck, we already know our current models all have major holes in them. Who predicted dark matter and dark energy? Noone did, which means our understanding of nature at cosmological scales is seriously lacking. So this isn't the time to start taking bets and believe hype by religous apologists. We have to wait for the evidence to decide.

That evidence won't be coming from philosophers. And it most certainly won't be coming from religious apologists. It is pretty obvious why people like Craig are so enamored with the classic big bang model, they think they can bend it to support their theistic views. Of course, even THAT I would take issue with, because even if the universe was a singularity, it doesn't follow it came from nothing. But that's a discussion for another time. I hope this clarifies the subject a little for you.


I've also written about a transtion from nothing to something here: http://www.rationalskepticism.org/christianity/why-the-kalam-cosmological-argument-fails-t31116-540.html#p1662507
Rumraket wrote:
You're saying nothing with any more explanatory power than "the universe created itself"

Actually to really understand the argument you need to understand the uncertainty principle. It's a bit more complicated that just "the universe created itself". In fact, it's more correct to say that "the uncertainty principle prevents the non-existence of the universe", than it is to say that "the uncertainty principle creates the universe".

In this respect, the universe has always existed. We don't need to invoke a first cause of any kind, we need only note that it is physically impossible for the universe not to exist. This is despite the supposed finitude of time in the past, because it is meaningless to speak of what could have "happened" to bring about the universe when there is no time or space for something to "happen" in, and there is no thing at all to be causally affected to begin existing.

The main issue arises out of allowing for absolute simultaneity. There are few things more deeply counterintuitive, and one can play all manner of nutty tricks with it.

You're essentially making the mistake of thinking that I'm literally trying to argue for a mechanism of ex nihilo creation. I'm actually not. Incidentally, I think ex nihilo creation is physically and logically impossible. It cannot happen in any way. Not through the will of god, or a physical mechanism or whatever else. For something to undergo any kind of causal influence, it has to already exist. If it doesn't exist, it can't be caused to do so because there's nothing there to be causally influenced.

So, I'm not saying that there was absolute non-being and then suddenly the uncertaintyprincple just magically exists and makes the universe create itself out of this nothingness, or whatever you imagine to that effect. That's not what I'm saying.

What I'm saying is that there was never such a thing as absolute non-being in the first place, because there can't be a time/moment of existence of non-being, before time itself. That would be absurd.
So that combined with the proposition that, for all of time, the uncertainty principle has been "in effect" so to speak, we don't NEED a creative force to precede the universe and then create it.

The way to look at it is to imagine we start from now, and then try and reverse the flow of time and approach t=0(the "beginning" of the universe). The uncertainty principle is in effect now, it "exists". The effect of the uncertainty principle is that there can't be a state of absolutely nothing. Ok? So, counting down to 0, we see that at any time t´ before now, it was still the case that the uncertainty principle was "in effect". When we reach 0, we just stop because there can't be a before the beginning of time. We cant go to time t=-1 if time itself stops at t=0. So, the universe with it's uncertainty principle has always existed, so it has always been the case that absolute non-being is and was physically impossible.

Now if you just can't wrap your head around this, and you demand a first cause, lucky for you, Craig has wibbled what you need: Absolute simultaneity.

We still don't need to invoke god. We just say OK Craig, absolute simultaneity is possible huh? Well I'm going to be economical and just stick with the fewest amount of assumptions. Instead of absolute simultaneity and god, I'm just sticking to absolute simultaneity. The uncertainty principle is observed, god is not, so I'm only going to agree to take on absolute simultaneity.

So, what happens at t=0? Well, as above there was/is still not ever a time/moment of absolute non-being. There is not a transition from nothing to universe. There is no "moment of change", because there is no time t<0 with "no universe" and a later time t>0 with "suddenly universe". Instead, the universe "begins" instantaneously to exist at t=0, simultaneously with the uncertainty principle preventing absolute non-being from manifesting.

I fully concede that there are at least two incomprehensible propositions here. The first is the very idea of a beginning of time itself. The second is the idea of absolute simultaneity. The issue isn't so much self-creation, at least to me, as it's the whole idea of a state of absolute non-being as being manifest, before time itself. How can non-being be? We can't make sense of it.

Reeve wrote:and that makes as much sense as a pair of hands drawing themselves. i.e. violating causality.

In non-apologist causality, causes precede their effects. If you allow absolute simultaneity, which was the whole point of my exercise here, then hands can indeed draw themselves. It still makes fewer assumptions(and more sense) than postulating a magical timeless and immortal, but loving personal hand that exists timelessly and can draw the universe into existence without a pencil to draw with and paper to draw on.


And about the logical conondrum of a beginning of time: http://www.rationalskepticism.org/nontheism/nature-can-t-always-have-existed-nor-startup-from-nothing-t31696-160.html#p1329944
Rumraket wrote:
revivin wrote:Since the uncreated is proven to exist this is whom we call God.

Your proof was flawed and I explained why, in detail, here. You have still not offered any response.

Here it is again, so you can't miss it:

revivin wrote:I am glad you can't show it.

Let's go over it again then, so you can't miss it.

revivin wrote:I put this in my own words to paraphrase...

We observe trillions and trillions of causes in nature which is more than enough evidence beyond a reasonable doubt there is always a cause and effect in nature and no hard evidence of something from non-existence.

Yes, causality works in nature. Please demonstrate that it is required for nature itself to be caused.

Furthermore, all the causal events we know of are material causal events. Physical interactions between material intities. As a corollary, by your line of reasoning, we should expect the first cause to be another physical interaction between material entities.

If time began about 14 billion years ago, as an integral and inseperable property of the universe, then it would be correct to say that:

1. There was never a moment or point in time at which the universe didn't exist.

2. There was never a moment or point in time at which there was nothing at all.

3. There cannot be a "before time".

4. Therefore, the universe has always existed(for all of time), even if the temporal dimension is past-finite.

5. Therefore the universe didn't begin to exist from nothing at all.

revivin wrote:That which does not exist couldn't cause anything because it doesn't exist.

But given 1. above, the universe has always existed. So the universe has always existed so that it could be present to cause itself. So the universe could have caused itself, and given 2. it didn't do so "out of nothing" because there was nothing at all.

revivin wrote:Nor can nature always have existed because if it did, you would have had an eternity to come into being before now , so you should have happened already, having had an eternity to do so. And you would never have existed because a past eternity would still be going on for eternity to never reach this point.

Wrong.

Given a finite 14 billion year past, an eternity does not need to be traversed if time is an integral property of the universe.

revivin wrote:Since nature can't start up from nothing

But there is no requirement that it did as I have just demonstrated.

revivin wrote:, nor always have existed

But it did always exist. There was never a time when the universe didn't exist, which means the universe always existed.

revivin wrote:, it needs a cause outside of itself, outside of time and space, being uncreated which proves unequivocally that there exists the uncreated Creator whom we call God.

But that's wrong. You have NOT established this, it is nothing but counter-factual blind assertions.


There is no evidence that a mind can exist in the absense of a physical brain. There is no evidence that minds, whether they exist with or without physical brains, can wish material entitites into existence out of anything at all. We only have evidence of material physical interactions between material entities. There is no evidence of anything else. So your "proof" has failed. It is and remains a blind assertion. A claim without warrant or basis, in absense of logic or rational support.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#6  Postby DavidMcC » Dec 30, 2016 1:37 pm

Rumraket wrote:First of all, there isn't any evidence that the universe actually began....

Dëpends what you mean by "universe":
http://www.rationalskepticism.org/physics/loop-quantum-gravity-t9397-100.html#p1211883
If universes are created by black holes, then, clearly they do have a beginning. What probably does not is the hyperspace continuum that gives birth to them.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#7  Postby MeCagoEnCristo » Dec 31, 2016 9:39 pm

twistor59 wrote:

You mean the comment about the photon?

No, it's not an example of ex-nihilo creation.


Yes. Thank you for your answer.
But now I'm confused... What did Dr. Krauss mean by the paragraph I quoted then?
He said it in the context of defending his A Universe from Nothing book and nothingness concepts.
Did he simplify it too far, or is it plain wrong? I'm surprised his opponents didn't challenge him immediately with this.

twistor59 wrote: Energy and momentum were conserved in the "creation" process. There was stuff there before the photon existed and there is the same amount of stuff after it. All that has changed is the form of the stuff.

What would that stuff be? Is it the energy that excited the electron in the first place?

If so, is this energy then transformed into a photon when the electron goes back one "orbit level"? Is that what you meant by the energy and momentum being conserved?

twistor59 wrote:
None of the current "universe from nothing" arguments are strong enough. I think we'll have to wait until there is a better understanding of quantum gravity and the measurement problem unfortunately.

I've only watched some of his lectures, and I had the impression there was very good mathematical and theoretical support for a universe from nothing (the Casimir experiment, virtual particles, etc.).

One explanation I heard was that, when matter and antimatter meet, they cancel each other out releasing energy. And if that process were reversed, then we would have the something from nothing (this energy being contained in the vacuum/nothingness). Am I getting it wrong?

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We'll go out for a few days, so I'm not sure when I will be able to respond to the rest of the comments, but I will at my first opportunity.

Thank you all, and have a great celebration tonight! Cheers! Salud! :cheers:
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#8  Postby crank » Jan 01, 2017 1:40 am

I've never understood how they think they can just assert that god doesn't require a cause, but the universe does. Never heard anything coherent in justification of this. It's a very common debate topic, 'does god exist'. Why don't they debate whether a god or gods can exist, once they establish that, then they can debate that it does. The usual debate assumes gods can exist, and that's giving away way too much before the debate even begins.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#9  Postby twistor59 » Jan 01, 2017 9:03 am

MeCagoEnCristo wrote:
twistor59 wrote:

You mean the comment about the photon?

No, it's not an example of ex-nihilo creation.


Yes. Thank you for your answer.
But now I'm confused... What did Dr. Krauss mean by the paragraph I quoted then?
He said it in the context of defending his A Universe from Nothing book and nothingness concepts.
Did he simplify it too far, or is it plain wrong? I'm surprised his opponents didn't challenge him immediately with this.

twistor59 wrote: Energy and momentum were conserved in the "creation" process. There was stuff there before the photon existed and there is the same amount of stuff after it. All that has changed is the form of the stuff.

What would that stuff be? Is it the energy that excited the electron in the first place?

If so, is this energy then transformed into a photon when the electron goes back one "orbit level"? Is that what you meant by the energy and momentum being conserved?


Yes, here by "stuff" I mean energy/mass, which are the same thing - E=mc^2 and all that. So in this case you have the energy/mass of the atom/electrons and the energy/mass of the photon. The totals are the same before and after the creation of the photon. As he said in that paragraph - the photon didn't exist before the event. But it's not true to say it was created from nothing. The mass/energy of the system before and after was the same, no new "stuff" has appeared.

MeCagoEnCristo wrote:
twistor59 wrote:
None of the current "universe from nothing" arguments are strong enough. I think we'll have to wait until there is a better understanding of quantum gravity and the measurement problem unfortunately.

I've only watched some of his lectures, and I had the impression there was very good mathematical and theoretical support for a universe from nothing (the Casimir experiment, virtual particles, etc.).

One explanation I heard was that, when matter and antimatter meet, they cancel each other out releasing energy. And if that process were reversed, then we would have the something from nothing (this energy being contained in the vacuum/nothingness). Am I getting it wrong?


My point of view is that if you reversed the picture of an electron/positron annihilation, you would be creating the electron/positron pair out of the energy. This is not "from nothing". Energy is far from nothing!

The idea that Krauss is alluding to ultimately (I think), is that the universe arises via a mechanism like the one proposed by Vilenkin many years back http://www.gravityresearchfoundation.org/pdf/awarded/1983/vilenkin.pdf. "Nothing" in this context means not only no mass/energy, but also no space. The problem is that the mathematics in these approaches can't be made to work at the moment, also there is still a need to explain where the time evolution comes from.

I'm not sure how Krauss phrases his claims, but I think anything stronger than "it appears there are some research directions that may one day shed some light on this issue" are unwarranted at this time.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#10  Postby DavidMcC » Jan 01, 2017 7:21 pm

twistor59 wrote:
MeCagoEnCristo wrote:
twistor59 wrote:

You mean the comment about the photon?

No, it's not an example of ex-nihilo creation.


Yes. Thank you for your answer.
But now I'm confused... What did Dr. Krauss mean by the paragraph I quoted then?
He said it in the context of defending his A Universe from Nothing book and nothingness concepts.
Did he simplify it too far, or is it plain wrong? I'm surprised his opponents didn't challenge him immediately with this.

twistor59 wrote: Energy and momentum were conserved in the "creation" process. There was stuff there before the photon existed and there is the same amount of stuff after it. All that has changed is the form of the stuff.

What would that stuff be? Is it the energy that excited the electron in the first place?

If so, is this energy then transformed into a photon when the electron goes back one "orbit level"? Is that what you meant by the energy and momentum being conserved?


Yes, here by "stuff" I mean energy/mass, which are the same thing - E=mc^2 and all that. So in this case you have the energy/mass of the atom/electrons and the energy/mass of the photon. The totals are the same before and after the creation of the photon. As he said in that paragraph - the photon didn't exist before the event. But it's not true to say it was created from nothing. The mass/energy of the system before and after was the same, no new "stuff" has appeared.

MeCagoEnCristo wrote:
twistor59 wrote:
None of the current "universe from nothing" arguments are strong enough. I think we'll have to wait until there is a better understanding of quantum gravity and the measurement problem unfortunately.

I've only watched some of his lectures, and I had the impression there was very good mathematical and theoretical support for a universe from nothing (the Casimir experiment, virtual particles, etc.).

One explanation I heard was that, when matter and antimatter meet, they cancel each other out releasing energy. And if that process were reversed, then we would have the something from nothing (this energy being contained in the vacuum/nothingness). Am I getting it wrong?


My point of view is that if you reversed the picture of an electron/positron annihilation, you would be creating the electron/positron pair out of the energy. This is not "from nothing". Energy is far from nothing!{/quote]

Indeed, it is!
The idea that Krauss is alluding to ultimately (I think), is that the universe arises via a mechanism like the one proposed by Vilenkin many years back http://www.gravityresearchfoundation.org/pdf/awarded/1983/vilenkin.pdf. "Nothing" in this context means not only no mass/energy, but also no space. The problem is that the mathematics in these approaches can't be made to work at the moment, also there is still a need to explain where the time evolution comes from.

I'm not sure how Krauss phrases his claims, but I think anything stronger than "it appears there are some research directions that may one day shed some light on this issue" are unwarranted at this time.

I suspect that Krauss has got into a rut with his "universe from nothing" idea, which never really convinced me. I still go with my "black hole in a greater universe" model, that I have already posted, in which there has never been complete nothingness.

EDIT: I should have added that "my" black hole model is mainly Lee Smolin's black hole model, although I added a lot of detail, and realised why Smolin was wrong to reject his own idea. (It probably had to do with his determination not to be lumped in with the nutters who had previously championed multiverses.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#11  Postby ElDiablo » Jan 01, 2017 7:43 pm

:coffee:
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#12  Postby Wortfish » Oct 30, 2018 6:35 pm

Krauss is in a lot of trouble right now over sexual misconduct and harassment. I'm not saying his physics is linked to his naughty habits, but it does make you wonder if we a narcissistic and egomanical personality could be overshadowing his judgment.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#13  Postby Blackadder » Oct 30, 2018 6:55 pm

Wortfish wrote:Krauss is in a lot of trouble right now over sexual misconduct and harassment. I'm not saying his physics is linked to his naughty habits, but it does make you wonder if we a narcissistic and egomanical personality could be overshadowing his judgment.


Whether Krauss is a sexual predator or not is a matter for the police and the legal system to determine. His personality may be of interest to them.

Whether his scientific work has any merit or not is a matter for scientists to examine. His personality is irrelevant.

Even for someone with your many and well-evidenced demonstrations of complete and utter ignorance, this is pretty woeful. Not only do you not understand science, you don't understand understanding.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#14  Postby Rumraket » Oct 30, 2018 7:10 pm

Wortfish wrote:I'm not saying (...) but it does make you wonder if we a narcissistic and egomanical personality could be overshadowing his judgment.

I'm not saying, but I'm just saying... :roll:
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#15  Postby hackenslash » Oct 30, 2018 7:18 pm

Wortfish wrote:Krauss is in a lot of trouble right now over sexual misconduct and harassment. I'm not saying his physics is linked to his naughty habits, but it does make you wonder if we a narcissistic and egomanical personality could be overshadowing his judgment.


Love the way you just assume his guilt here.

I'm pretty familiar with the allegations, and they stem from a Buzzfeed article that's riddled with misrepresentations and outright lies.

There have been accusations, and he isn't currently in any trouble. You can read his statement about it HERE (pdf)

Nothing about any of that has any impact on his work, which is commensurate with known physics, not least the physics underpinning your ability to further the smear with his having no chance of responding (except that I'll be linking your post to him as soon as I've posted this, as we are in touch).

In terms of the physics, I wrote a sort of review of the book dealing with the underlying physics, which he has read and is included in his Wakelet profile, which is managed by a good friend of mine. You can read my review of the physics at the following link:

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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#16  Postby scott1328 » Oct 30, 2018 9:04 pm

Wortfish wrote:Krauss is in a lot of trouble right now over sexual misconduct and harassment. I'm not saying his physics is linked to his naughty habits, but it does make you wonder if we a narcissistic and egomanical personality could be overshadowing his judgment.

Well poisoning, ad hominem. Typical.

You know Jesus hung out with whores. Rumor has it he knocked one of the whores up and his followers tried to cover it up. I wonder if his narcissistic and egomaniacal personality could have overshadowed his judgement.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#17  Postby Rumraket » Oct 30, 2018 9:36 pm

The next-most plausible interpretation of the "virgin birth" is that some nasty fella with a micropenis found Mary sleeping and just put the tip in and dropped his load. Even that is more plausible than the idea that a middle-eastern woman in the literal bronze age suddenly gets pregnant, claims she's still a virgin, and that people believe her. Yeah, right. As if that ever happened. She woulda been discarded like a used plastic bag. :lol:
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#18  Postby hackenslash » Oct 30, 2018 9:41 pm

Given how such things are treated in the Middle East nowadays, she'd have been raped by prison guards just so that they could circumvent the stricture on stoning virgins to death.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#19  Postby Wortfish » Oct 31, 2018 3:18 am

scott1328 wrote:
Wortfish wrote:Krauss is in a lot of trouble right now over sexual misconduct and harassment. I'm not saying his physics is linked to his naughty habits, but it does make you wonder if we a narcissistic and egomanical personality could be overshadowing his judgment.

Well poisoning, ad hominem. Typical.

You know Jesus hung out with whores. Rumor has it he knocked one of the whores up and his followers tried to cover it up. I wonder if his narcissistic and egomaniacal personality could have overshadowed his judgement.


You can be a good physicist and a sexual predator. But your integrity and credibility as a scientist depends on your personal character. Krauss has admitted that he is extremely annoying as a person. He may also be extremely guilty of misconduct.
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Re: Is this L. Krauss remark an example of creation ex nihilo?

#20  Postby scott1328 » Oct 31, 2018 3:35 am

No. One’s credibility as a scientist depends solely upon peer review.

Religious leaders’ credibility depend upon their behavior. Too bad they mostly fail at it.
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