Posted: Aug 12, 2010 8:29 am
by newolder
I've got a bit confused (again) here:
twistor59 wrote:(Note in most of the mathematical literature the term “holonomy” is used for closed curves only. In LQG papers, it’s conventional to abuse the term). … where P and Q are the endpoints of the curve C.

So, if P<>Q it's not strictly a holonomy? Also, if P<>Q how is it describing a 'loop'? :???: :scratch: