Posted: Jan 20, 2011 8:59 pm
by Hugin
Will S wrote:
Hugin wrote:Anyhow, since science is based on reason, why does Dawkins call his foundation "... for Reason and Science"? :ask:

I can't see why not. After all, we naturally speak of 'food and drink', even though there's no absolute difference between them. At what point does a thick soup become a thin stew? :angel:

Sure, but in the case of science and reason, the former is a subset (or form) of the latter, whereas I guess none of food and drink are a subset of the other.

EDIT: By your analogy, it would be like if a restaurant said they offered food and pizza. Pizza is a kind of food, obviously.

Btw, another thing: If science is a form of reason, how does this apply to the old rationalism vs empiricism debate? Of those, science surely seems to be closer to empiricism.