Posted: Mar 12, 2018 4:33 am
by OlivierK
I'm sufficiently interested, but I'm also sufficiently informed about this topic to seriously doubt whether a rigorous comparison is even possible, given the different offence definitions, and different reporting protocols.

Regardless, even granting that the US has a violent crime rate of half that of the UK, and even granting that the difference is explainable by defensive gun use (I don't think either premise is sound, but they seem to be your contentions), what exactly is your point? That it's worth the extra 300+% homicides to get other violent crimes down by 50%? I'm happy to be corrected, but that's the best I can make of your case here.