Posted: Mar 12, 2018 4:58 am
by OlivierK
Warren Dew wrote:
OlivierK wrote:Well, you may be almost certain without data, but I'm not sure that counts for much.

The data is in the old thread. I'm sure anyone sufficiently interested can dig it up.

Well, I'm sufficiently interested to have followed the link to the Vegas thread that was posted here, and to have re-read about ten pages worth around the point that was linked, and the closest I can find is this: ... l#p2588201

where you make the same claim about the data, along with the observation that the justification for your conclusion is that UK common assault corresponds to US aggravated assault in its definition, a claim that is swiftly addressed by several posters who cite the actual definitions, which clearly show that claim to be false. In my re-reading, you did not respond to your claim being demonstrated as false.

So, given that I was sufficiently interested to re-read an old thread that showed that your conclusion was based on a demonstrably false premise, I'm just going to treat this current claim that the UK undoubtedly has a higher violent crime rate than the US as similarly rectally extracted. If you are sufficiently interested in producing an accounting that doesn't rely on demonstrably wrong premises, or pointing me to where I could find one, I may reconsider.