Posted: Apr 30, 2012 1:41 pm
Sorry are you actually suggesting that gay men don't have more anal penetrative intercourse than gay women?
Or are you questioning the suggestion that "gay men have more anal sex than non gay men, because they are gay"?
I'm struggling to understand how you can't see this, it's about as clear a chain of causation as can exist.
Gay men have more anal sex, because they are gay -> anal sex has a higher rate of transmission of HIV -> therefore gay men have a higher prevalence of HIV.
Or are you questioning the suggestion that "gay men have more anal sex than non gay men, because they are gay"?
I'm struggling to understand how you can't see this, it's about as clear a chain of causation as can exist.
Gay men have more anal sex, because they are gay -> anal sex has a higher rate of transmission of HIV -> therefore gay men have a higher prevalence of HIV.