Posted: Apr 01, 2016 3:41 pm
by Shrunk
Am I to understand correctly that Animavore's Macbeth example has convinced blue triangle that there is nothing so remarkable in itself about being able to numerologically derive an estimation of pi from a written text, and his "evidence" for an immaterial mind communicating with us now hinges solely on the fact that this occurred in the 1st verse, as opposed to elsewhere, in the Bible?