Posted: Feb 01, 2012 11:46 pm
by TheOneTrueZeke
Mus Ponticus wrote:"Objective" advantage? Do you mean that it would be absurd if anybody claimed that using "70%" were more objective than "probably"?

Again, you didn't ask me but...yes, it would be emphatically absurd in the case where one cannot empirically demonstrate how that "70%" figure was derived.