Posted: Jun 18, 2017 1:23 am
by Tracer Tong
So you're not suggesting that the particular passages are spurious, but the entire works are? If so, what's the evidence they are? And why these, but not others (the ones that don't mention Christians)?

Also, you mentioned that you'd "made a study" of these references, and now, apparently, the works in which they occur in general. What literature did you read in the course of that study (beyond the 104 year old introduction to the Loeb translation)?