Posted: Jun 07, 2018 12:18 am
IF the NT existed in the 1st and 2nd century what was the official authority that established which texts were divinely inspired for inclusion and which were not?
How could a book allegedly written by Iraeneus or Justin or anyone else claim divine authority for the 4 gospels and the epistles etc. in the first or second century if no authority (i.e. Council of Hippo and Carthage) existed to established the canon of 4 gospels, etc.?
How on earth can anyone logically believe in all the claims of the NT existing in the first or even the second century when there was no authority to establish its canon for the allegedly existing religion?!!
How could a book allegedly written by Iraeneus or Justin or anyone else claim divine authority for the 4 gospels and the epistles etc. in the first or second century if no authority (i.e. Council of Hippo and Carthage) existed to established the canon of 4 gospels, etc.?
How on earth can anyone logically believe in all the claims of the NT existing in the first or even the second century when there was no authority to establish its canon for the allegedly existing religion?!!