Posted: Jul 06, 2018 8:02 pm
by duvduv
What is the traditional unchallenged Christian explanation of how some 28 references to the Greek "stauros" were translated later generations to a "cross"?? And if at least the educated elite who knew Greek themselves knew it was a stake and not a cross, why did the iconography change it into a cross?

It's probably worth noting that the symbology in the book attributed to Josephus refers to the use of cross to crucify criminals under the Hasmonean dynasty. This would be another piece of evidence that the works named for Josephus emerged from a collection of information from sources INCLUDING the church itself that incorporated it in the 4th century or thereafter.