Posted: Mar 15, 2020 9:38 am
by Nevets
Thomas Eshuis wrote:
Nevets wrote:
Spearthrower wrote:
Now, my challenge to those that "believe" the Greeks had a language that is not recorded, pre 2000BC, is to come out and "prove" this, otherwise the belief seems to be equally as big a fairytale as actual Septuagint & Jesus belief.


So the people living in modern-day Greece prior to 2000 B.C. were mute?


No, they were originally of the Proto-Indo-European language. In the late Neolithic.

Proto-Greek was originally a dialect of the Proto-Indo-European language. In the late Neolithic https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Greek_language


Do you have any reason to believe this is wrong? Or any evidence to the contrary?

:picard:[/quote]

So it derives from languages that derived from Indo-european.