rationalskepticism.org

Nevets wrote:

Thomas Eshuis wrote:

Nevets wrote:
So it derives from languages that derived from Indo-european.

Origins

Proto-Greek is mostly placed in the Early Helladic period (late 4th millennium BC; circa 3200 BC) towards the end of the Neolithic in Southern Europe.[5][6] Russell Gray and Quentin Atkinson, in a 2003 paper using computational methods on Swadesh lists, have arrived at a somewhat earlier estimate: around 5000 BC for Graeco-Armenian or proto Graeco-Aryan split, and the emergence of Greek and Armenian as separate linguistic lineages around 4000 BC
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Gre ... ge#Origins

So Graeco came from Graeco Armenian or proto Graeco-Aryan. So lets go to Graeco-Aryan and see what that means

Graeco-Aryan, or Graeco-Armeno-Aryan, is a hypothetical clade within the Indo-European family that would be the ancestor of Greek, Armenian, and the Indo-Iranian languages.

Graeco-Armeno-Aryan group means

The Graeco-Armeno-Aryan group supposedly branched off from the parent Indo-European stem by the mid-3rd millennium BC. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graeco-Aryan

So this means, that Proto Greek, was a language formed, by a language that branched off from its parent group. Which was Indo-european.

People that are arguing against this, are obviously conspiracy theorists, and believe this to be a lie