Posted: Aug 21, 2011 1:59 pm
All very interesting, but what I think I am really looking for is evidence of Roman policy in occupied territories in the first century CE (whether or not the territory concerned is Judea). The Jesus story just serves to muddy the waters.
Did the Roman Governor of an occupied territory have the authority to 'change the rules' on how he governed a particular province?
Could he allow some degree of autonomy for the locals thereby, perhaps, making the province easier to govern?
Now, considering Pilate & Judea (and not involving the Jesus stuff), are there any Roman records on how he governed?
Did the Roman Governor of an occupied territory have the authority to 'change the rules' on how he governed a particular province?
Could he allow some degree of autonomy for the locals thereby, perhaps, making the province easier to govern?
Now, considering Pilate & Judea (and not involving the Jesus stuff), are there any Roman records on how he governed?