Posted: Mar 10, 2020 9:42 am
Svartalf wrote:How was Boudicca's uprising an invasion? It as a revolt of the locals versus the occupying Roman forces.
Because Boudiccas husband had his own Kingdom in Norfolk, and he was an independent ally of Rome, and when he died, he had left at least half of the kingdom in his will, to his two children, but his will was ignored by his independent ally, and his kingdom and property were taken from his two children.
Boudica's husband Prasutagus, with whom she had two children whose names are unknown, ruled as a nominally independent ally of Rome, and left his kingdom jointly to his daughters and to the Roman emperor in his will. However, when he died, his will was ignored, and the kingdom was annexed and his property taken. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boudica
Must be added, for justice sake
According to Tacitus, Boudica was flogged and her daughters raped. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boudica
This would mean that Boudicca was left without a military army. They are reduced to guerillas, without legitimacy in the eyes of the "law".
And therefore, whilst they were actually freedom fighters, attempting to defeat occupying forces, they were reduced to a position, where they were now barbarians and rebels in their own kingdom, that the law would say, they were invaders.
Tacitus records that she addressed her army with these words, "It is not as a woman descended from noble ancestry, but as one of the people that I am avenging lost freedom, my scourged body, the outraged chastity of my daughters," and concluded, "This is a woman's resolve; as for men, they may live and be slaves. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boudica#Uprising
Nero, at that time, was the one making the laws.