Posted: Feb 13, 2018 3:30 am
The other day for reasons that went unspecified, you claimed that a physicalist was not permitted to use language relating to mental phenomena. Putting aside the question of whether that claim is entirely ad hoc for the moment, would it then follow that an idealist is not permitted to use language relating to physical phenomena?
If so, why do you not stick to that rule? If not, why not?
If so, why do you not stick to that rule? If not, why not?