Posted: Aug 05, 2018 10:47 am
by LucidFlight
Simple question, but one I could not find a definitive answer for on the internet: why is Dionysus the more common spelling and not Dionysos? Is there some stage at which the -us ending was employed as an acceptable phonetic spelling and this became the norm? Is there some Latin influence on the English spelling? What's going on here? :ask:

Edited: typo “couldn’t not”.