Posted: Sep 16, 2019 7:26 am
by Spinozasgalt
I'm With Stupid wrote:This has come up a lot recently with some non-binary individuals wanting to be referred to as 'they/them' and people arguing that it's ungrammatical (as if grammar isn't just codified usage). But one thing you often hear as an argument as to why it is grammatical is that singular they has existed for centuries and indeed Shakespeare himself used it. It's basically an argument from history that it's valid because it's not actually a new usage. However, when people give examples, they tend to give examples that are not the same usage.

Where are people having this argument in this way? Show me what it looks like in the wild. I want to see if you've framed it correctly.