crank wrote:I fail to see how I read Mr. Samsa's post incorrectly. Can either of you point out how? It implies that expressing an emotion reinforces that emotion, I countered that the exact opposite happens when one masturbates. Then I hear, no you are misreading it, it is deeper, it reinforces the desire for that behaviour overall, long term, is that it?
Yes that's basically it, the law of effect (behavior that is followed by a 'pleasant' consequence is more likely to occur again in the future). Especially troublesome when combined with certain cues such as violent pornography, although that link is more tenuous and speculative.
crank wrote:And there is an analogy made to anger, well, WTF, really, so anger and sexual desire are similar? I must be a real freak, then.
I don't understand? Emotions are qualitatively dissimilar yes, but the process of learning is the same for all behaviors - different emotions don't have different effects on our underlying learning processes. Plus, it was an analogy, the fact that it was imperfect sort of comes along with the fact that it was an analogy.
crank wrote:Now, as to masturbation increasing desire, how strong an effect is that, really? The sex drive is a very deep, primal urge, can it really be substantially increased by masturbation?
The sex "drive" is a deep primal urge? Ignoring the issue of drive theory (a defunct theory discarded about a century ago that suggested that certain 'drives' direct our behavior toward certain goals) why is sex more primal than anger? Yes, the whole selfish gene, evolution thing is reliant on organisms that reproduce - sure, I can accept that. But the evolution of sexual arousal is not "more evolved" than anger, happiness or sadness. All emotions have an adaptive function (or we can assume that for now, without getting into an adpationist/spandrel debate) so I don't see why we'd see sexual arousal as more important or deeper/primal than any other emotion.
Eating is a "primal urge" too but we can increase and decrease that to significant levels by manipulating the antecedents and consequences of people's behavior.
crank wrote:This idea "Performing those behaviors consistently won't reduce the behaviors because they are reinforced by the very act, thus actually increasing the behaviors. ", how well is that supported in the literature, and I mean literature on sex drive, not anger?
And as I stated above, the whole field of behavioral psychology which describes the basic processes by which humans learn is consistent with this idea.
crank wrote:And, this whole topic is about sex crimes, something that occurs now, not over time. Right now, if I masturbate, you guys are implying that makes me more likely to go and commit a sex crime, again, I say daft. If one is getting a sexual urge, the idea that masturbation will increase that urge, I would require heaps of very good data before I would believe that. Maybe masturbation has an increased desire overall(I don't believe it will be substantial), but overall ain't right now, show me real world data, not students watching videos and filling out forms.
I didn't say that masturbation will turn you into a sexual deviant, just that masturbation won't decrease your sexual arousal over time.
Beatsong wrote:Mr.Samsa wrote:
No, the claim is sort of at a different level than what you're thinking. Whether consistent masturbation provides relief, or whether going to the gym to take your anger out on the punching bag calms you down or not, is besides the point. The argument is that if you masturbate a lot or take your anger a lot then you will desire sex less or get angry less. And this simply isn't the case. Performing those behaviors consistently won't reduce the behaviors because they are reinforced by the very act, thus actually increasing the behaviors.
But all you're showing here is that having a wank won't make you
wank less. Not any effect that it may or may not have on your likelihood to commit a sex crime.
Of course, because that wasn't my claim.
Beatsong wrote:There are several levels of crossed wires here I think. But I have to agree with crank that it's a pretty straightforward bet that someone who has masturbated to orgasm within, say, the last 24 hours, is less likely to commit a sex crime - all else being equal - than somebody who has had no sexual release of any kind for a year.
Hmm.. but this all assumes that pornography and masturbation are even a causative factor in all this, and I don't think they are.
Beatsong wrote:No one is claiming that sexual release is permanent, or even cumulative. But as long as one gets a continuous enough supply of it - in whatever form one gets - that doesn't really matter.
But then another of the crossed wires is that masturbation doesn't equal pornography. The question of the effect of masturbation on sex crime levels is different from the question of the effect of pornography (particularly violent pornography) on sex crime levels.
I agree.
Beatsong wrote:But while I admit I haven't read the OP's link yet, I can well imagine that there could be some connection between religious condemnation of masturbation as a sin, and sex crime levels. Just look at the Catholic church FFS.
Potentially, but I don't think masturbation is the problem, it would be the psychological abuse etc that would cause the sex crimes in that situation. (Plus, I think the Catholic Church is a bad example as Catholics are encouragedto fuck as much as they like as long as they don't wear a condom. Catholic priests however would suffer the problem you're talking about though).
Beatsong wrote:
I don't quite get how your answer relates to the question, but we have to consider that the progression repressed anger > violent crime is not the same as the progression repressed sex urge > sex crime.
Well that wasn't really my argument, I was simply pointing out that I don't think someone who doesn't masturbate is more likely to commit a sex crime because of some "primal urge" to have sex. This does not mean that the reverse is automatically true - that those who masturbate more are more likely. It just means that I don't think they are less likely.
Beatsong wrote:Most people tend to get angry about certain things, and if those things can be dealt with in a more constructive way than violence then there is no need for them to commit violence. It's only a minority of individuals who are said to have various kinds of "anger problems", that lead them to seek out or be unable to resist the urge for violence in itself.
By contrast, virtually everyone has a sex urge, and there is no way to satisfy that urge except by some kind of sexual act. Telling someone to go and "ponder" what's causing their sex urge for a week is not the same - and not as wise - as telling them to go and ponder what might be making them angry. The urge is more innately physical by nature and not as subject to intellectual abstraction.
Not so. Both sexual arousal and anger are innate emotions, but they are both shaped and caused by environmental factors. The sexual arousal you feel when you see a pretty lady or a hunky dude walking down the street is not this purely innate reaction, it's the result of decades of learning and shaping through environmental events.
So whilst it's true that going home and thinking about your sexual arousal probably won't be all that useful (since the arousal was likely caused by those thoughts in the first place), it's certainly not true that the only way to reduce the sexual arousal is by some kind of sexual act. Go home and forget about it, the urge will go away just like anger fades, sadness fades, happiness, etc etc.
Beatsong wrote:Then there's the fact that while the urge itself doesn't imply anything to do with anger, the sheer fact of repressing it for long enough may well do, and bring with it feelings of resentment, entitlement etc that contribute to it being expressed through crime, that simply wouldn't have been there if it could be expressed as freely as necessary, as often as necessary.
But that argument requires you to demonstrate that 'repression' can produce feelings of 'resentment' and 'entitlement', and then that these feelings can lead to crime, and then demonstrate that this leads to more sexual crime than 'not repressing' it. If a kid has had it drilled into him that masturbation is bad, god will make him burst into flames if he does it, that razor blades fire out of your dick etc etc which prevents him from masturbating, and he then goes on to commit a sexual crime - are we really going to try to say that he committed the crime because he didn't have an "outlet" for masturbation?
Of course not. The obvious cause of the crime in that scenario would be the shit childhood he had.
Just to be clear; I haven't suggested that partaking in pornography or masturbation will result in you committing a sex crime. I have just been trying to counter the point that
not partaking in pornography or masturbation will result in you committing a sex crime. The negation of one does not mean an automatic acceptance of the other.