I know, I am the OP.
I just can't find any sound arguments in his article.
zoon wrote: I think he argues that since theism claims that god exists, it’s useful for philosophers to take the straightforward approach and define atheism as the claim that god does not exist.
Except, philosophers especially ,should know those aren't the only two options.
zoon wrote: He says, however, that “atheism” is a word with a number of related meanings, and a definition which is useful for philosophy may not be the most useful one in other contexts.
That may be true, but he doesn't provide a sound argument to demonstrate as much.
zoon wrote:
Although Flew’s definition of “atheism” fails as an umbrella term, it is certainly a legitimate definition in the sense that it reports how a significant number of people use the term. Again, there is more than one “correct” definition of “atheism”. The issue for philosophy is which definition is the most useful for scholarly or, more narrowly, philosophical purposes. In other contexts, of course, the issue of how to define “atheism” or “atheist” may look very different.
Except that if you're writing a paper about atheism and/or atheists and you use an idiosyncratic definition that doesn't apply to the actual group of atheists world-wide, your conclusions will be pretty pointless.
I agree.
And I fail to see how Draper can argue (which he fails to do by the way, he just asserts) that said definition fails as an umbrella term.