zoon wrote:shh wrote: You could probably interpret this in such a way that it doesn't entail metaphysics, but lots of the conversation you've had in this thread does, in fact all of it, barring this statement, and this statement only if deliberately interpreted in such a way as to be void of metaphysics. The only people who've not made metaphysical statements in this thread are those who came right out and said "I'm amoral".
I’m amoral. I deny the existence of objective morality.
I’m afraid the confusion has arisen because the word “morality” has two very different meanings, both of which were used in the opening post of this thread. These two meanings of “morality” are the first two in the
free online dictionary. They are also discussed at length in the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy article on the
definition of morality. (The first meaning in the online dictionary is the second in the SEP, and the second meaning in the online dictionary is the first in the SEP.)
The confusion is that both uses in the OP entail the first- the question “Furthermore, I understand that I can apply and follow my own ethical interests without submitting myself to any moral system but wouldn't this imply that I cannot advertise my own values to others?” is only answerable in terms of a normative morality. If you're using morality descriptively, then whether or not one can advertise their morality is entirely dependent on their "morality", in other words, it's completely subjective. There's no answer beyond that.
I'm well aware of the definitions, it was me that posted them originally.
1) Morality (1). As used in the sentence “I deny the existence of objective morality”, and as used in the first part of the opening post of this thread. The Oxford English Dictionary gives for this meaning: (mass noun) principles concerning the distinction between right and wrong or good and bad behaviour; examples in the OED: “the matter boiled down to simple morality”, “innocent prisoners ought to be freed”. The SEP article calls this “normative morality” because it implies that people should behave in certain ways. It’s a mass noun, like “happiness” or “china”: it doesn’t exist in the plural.
1) Morality (2) As used in the last paragraph of the opening post in this thread: “Furthermore, I understand that I can apply and follow my own ethical interests without submitting myself to any moral system but wouldn't this imply that I cannot advertise my own values to others?” Given this meaning, “morality” doesn’t say what people should do, it isn’t normative. The Oxford English Dictionary gives for this meaning: (count noun)a particular system of values and principles of conduct”; example in the OED: “a bourgeois morality”. The SEP article calls this “descriptive morality”; it’s merely talking about codes of conduct, not saying anyone should or shouldn’t do anything. It’s a count noun, which can exist in the plural, because there can be a number of moralities in this descriptive sense, while morality in the normative sense isn’t the kind of thing that can be counted.
If it doesn't say what people should do, it can't answer the question. Added to this, a code of conduct is an ethic, not a morality, even normative morality tells people (who accept it) what they should do, that's the distinction between ethics and morals.
I deny the existence of morality in sense (1), but I think there are many existing moralities in sense (2). In this thread, I have been using the word “morality” almost entirely in sense (2), and may have given you the impression that I thought it exists in sense (1).
No, I'm telling you that the descriptive moralities described in this thread all entail the existence of a normative morality, even if those proposing or discussing them don't realize it. I know you think that morality as you're discussing it is separate from normative morality, I'm saying it's not.
When you start talking about how morality is properly or best derived from empathy, you're doing teleology, you have to ignore everything we know about group mechanics and the actual histories of the various "moralities" which exist and have existed. And you're going to do it based on the morality you happen to be a member of.
That's why those talking about allegedly descriptive morality have chosen empathy, and not mentioned game theory, that's how firm atheists, mostly ex-Christian, and possibly anti-Christian can come to the conclusion that the "proper" way to derive morality is the way that Christianity says.
And that's why the talk about allegedly descriptive morality is so vague as to not make any hard claims about morality whatsoever.