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Scarlett and Ironclad wrote:Campermon,...a middle aged, middle class, Guardian reading, dad of four, knackered hippy, woolly jumper wearing wino and science teacher.
John Platko wrote:From WikipediaSecond law: The acceleration of a body is directly proportional to, and in the same direction as, the net force acting on the body, and inversely proportional to its mass. Thus, F = ma, where F is the net force acting on the object, m is the mass of the object and a is the acceleration of the object.
Newton's law of universal gravitation states that every point mass in the universe attracts every other point mass with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. (Separately it was shown that large spherically symmetrical masses attract and are attracted as if all their mass were concentrated at their centers.) This is a general physical law derived from empirical observations by what Newton called induction.[2]
My question is, how true are these laws for objects like golf balls and planets? (as opposed to electrons and such) Are there exceptions, are they incomplete, are they true?
klazmon wrote:John Platko wrote:From WikipediaSecond law: The acceleration of a body is directly proportional to, and in the same direction as, the net force acting on the body, and inversely proportional to its mass. Thus, F = ma, where F is the net force acting on the object, m is the mass of the object and a is the acceleration of the object.
Regarding previous comments about relativity. Using F=mA is fine for special relativity (where A is the acceleration 4 vector) but for general relativity you would need to write: F = dP/dt. In what sense do you mean they are true? As far as we know F = dP/dt always holds. You cannot prove these in the absolute sense of mathematics. They are models of the universe based on empirical measurement.
Newton's law of universal gravitation states that every point mass in the universe attracts every other point mass with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. (Separately it was shown that large spherically symmetrical masses attract and are attracted as if all their mass were concentrated at their centers.) This is a general physical law derived from empirical observations by what Newton called induction.[2]
My question is, how true are these laws for objects like golf balls and planets? (as opposed to electrons and such) Are there exceptions, are they incomplete, are they true?
Sendraks wrote:What is all this "truth" you speak of? What "truth" are you seeking John?
John Platko wrote:
There are two aspects to my question. One is more general. What does it mean when physics calls something a law? Does it mean that the law is true? In what sense is the law true? It's all very curious.
John Platko wrote:And if modern science can't shed any definitive light on whether the ball falls continuously or discreetly, can ancient science?
John Platko wrote:
And if modern science can't shed any definitive light on whether the ball falls continuously or discreetly, can ancient science?
Scarlett and Ironclad wrote:Campermon,...a middle aged, middle class, Guardian reading, dad of four, knackered hippy, woolly jumper wearing wino and science teacher.
John Platko wrote:And if modern science can't shed any definitive light on whether the ball falls continuously or discreetly, can ancient science?
You're suggesting that modern science has somehow ignored earlier theories in the development of current theories?
Sendraks wrote:Well quite.
Where "learning" actually means "ignoring what could be learn for the sake of not understanding and attempting to drive woo shaped wedges into science."
John Platko wrote:
By true I mean: having all the expected or necessary qualities.
John Platko wrote:It's possible.
Sendraks wrote:John Platko wrote:
By true I mean: having all the expected or necessary qualities.
You mean by matching every possible description under every possible circumstance?
And that should there be an instance of a theory not matching up, it is immediately considered false?
What a curiously digital and unscientific mind you have.
John Platko wrote:It's possible.
Many things are possible. We like to cite evidence however, rather than speculate or make unevidenced assertions.
His thought about the impossibility of traversing an infinite discreet series may be one of them.
That which lurketh underneath your obviously transparent lines of inquiry.
newolder wrote:having fun with zeno's paradox #935:
tuco wrote:How true? About as true as tape measure. Now go back to school for Christ sake. I do not want to live with people like you around.
John Platko wrote:
My question has nothing to do with Zeno's paradox. Me thinks you don't understand my question.
His thought about the impossibility of traversing an infinite discreet series may be one of them.
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