Historical Jesus

Abrahamic religion, you know, the one with the cross...

Moderators: kiore, Blip, The_Metatron

Re: Historical Jesus

#41001  Postby dejuror » Sep 28, 2015 3:25 pm

Stein wrote:
Mike S wrote:

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


Excuse me: "[i]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one?

Stein


1. Antiquitities of the Jews does not identify any character called Jesus of Nazareth.

2. Antiquities of the Jews does not identify any character who was the brother of Jesus of Nazareth .

3. Antiquities of the Jews does not mention any apostle called James.

4. In Antiquities of the Jews, Jesus called Christ was ALIVE up to at least c 62 CE or in the time of Nero.

5. Galatians 1.19 does not state that James was the brother of Jesus--James is the brother of the LORD [KY] the NOMINA SACRA for the GOD of the Jews].

6. Christian writers of antiquity admitted THEIR James was NOT the brother of Jesus .

7. In Christian writings, the character called Jesus DENIED he was the brother of James.

8. In Christian writings, James was ALIVE c 68-69 CE so could not be the James in Antiquities of the Jews.

9. In Antiquities of the Jews, Jesus called Anointed [Christos] was Jesus the High Priest. Jewish Kings and High Priest were called Anointed [Christos].

10. Christian Bible stories of Jesus are known fiction/myth.

Antiquities of the Jews is really worthless as evidence for the character called Jesus of Nazareth found in the Christian Bible.
dejuror
 
Posts: 4759

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41002  Postby Stein » Sep 28, 2015 4:51 pm

dejuror wrote:
Stein wrote:
Mike S wrote:

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


Excuse me: "[i]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one?

Stein


1. Antiquitities of the <usual blah-blah-blah snipped>


My question to Mike S. still stands --

Mike S wrote:

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


Excuse me: "[I]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one? Moreover, Antiqs. XX is partly at odds with any biblical account of similar incidents. So plainly this contemporary Josephan account of Ananus and James bears no biblical influence either.

Stein
Stein
 
Posts: 2492

United States (us)
Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41003  Postby dejuror » Sep 28, 2015 7:53 pm

Stein wrote:

My question to Mike S. still stands -------Excuse me: "[I]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one? Moreover, Antiqs. XX is partly at odds with any biblical account of similar incidents. So plainly this contemporary Josephan account of Ananus and James bears no biblical influence either.

Stein


My ANSWER to you still stands. All you have are blah-blah-blah questions and never have any historical evidence.

Antiquities of the Jews is completely useless to argue for an OBSCURE historical Jesus.

You admit that Antiquities XX is NOT corroborated by biblical accounts yet illogically assume that Jesus called the Anointed [Christ] who was ALIVE up to at least c 61 CE is the same Jesus of Nazareth who was supposedly crucified because he made havoc in the Temple in the time of Pilate c 27-37 CE.

How absurd!!!

Jesus called the Anointed [Christus] is Jesus the High Priest in Antiquities of the Jews.

Many Jews were called the Anointed [Christus].

In Antiquities of the Jews XX, Only Jesus the High Priest could be called the Anointed [Christ] since Jewish High Priests were PHYSICALLY ANOINTED and called the Anointed [Christus]

The supposed prophesied Christus has NOT yet arrived according to Jews.

Josephus, Tacitus and Suetonius all ADMIT that the supposed prophesied Anointed One or Messianic ruler was VESPASIAN.

HJ is a fiction invented from imagination and mythological/non-historical fables called the New Testament.
dejuror
 
Posts: 4759

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41004  Postby Mike S » Sep 29, 2015 1:49 am

Stein wrote:

Mike S wrote:

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


Excuse me: "[I]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one? Moreover, Antiqs. XX is partly at odds with any biblical account of similar incidents. So plainly this contemporary Josephan account of Ananus and James bears no biblical influence either.


Nothing to wriggle out of, Stein – having in mind the Testimonium’s comprehensive nature, I specifically sought to exclude the Josephus references (‘ignoring Josephus’).

Apart from that, excuse my ignorance, but I’m having trouble following your train of thought. Please clarify what you mean.

James, the brother of Jesus, or, more accurately, James, the brother of Jesus bar Damneus?
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41005  Postby proudfootz » Sep 29, 2015 2:16 am

Mike S wrote:
Stein wrote:

Mike S wrote:

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


Excuse me: "[I]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one? Moreover, Antiqs. XX is partly at odds with any biblical account of similar incidents. So plainly this contemporary Josephan account of Ananus and James bears no biblical influence either.


Nothing to wriggle out of, Stein – having in mind the Testimonium’s comprehensive nature, I specifically sought to exclude the Josephus references (‘ignoring Josephus’).

Apart from that, excuse my ignorance, but I’m having trouble following your train of thought. Please clarify what you mean.

James, the brother of Jesus, or, more accurately, James, the brother of Jesus bar Damneus?


Yes, if we have the phrase ' the brother of Jesus, called Christ, James by name' it's still somewhat ambiguous.
"Truth is stranger than fiction, but it is because Fiction is obliged to stick to possibilities; Truth isn't." - Mark Twain
User avatar
proudfootz
 
Posts: 11041

Country: USA
United States (us)
Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41006  Postby Leucius Charinus » Sep 29, 2015 2:24 am

Mike S wrote:
Leucius Charinus wrote:
With an emphasis on the prospect that the Christian references in Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny and Trajan are plain and simple literary interpolations (or forgeries) of the Middle Age church "industry".


I seem to have read about the Christian references of Tacitus, Suetonius, and Pliny, not forgetting Josephus, forever and a day. Other than that of Pliny’s I don’t doubt for a moment that they’re spurious.


What's so special about the Pliny-Trajan letter exchange? The Middle Age church industry "suddenly and unexpectedly" found the Pliny-Trajan manuscript in their ARCHIVES, and it was used as the basis for an Aldus Book (Printing press) run. Immediately after the Aldus publication the original manuscript (upon which the Aldus publication relied) was "suddenly and unexpectedly" LOST.

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


I agree with this assessment, however I think there is another level to which the questioning may be directed. This is basically the critical examination and evaluation of the evidence substantiating the existence of an historical nation of Christians (and their Bishops and Churches) prior to the appearance of "Church History" by Eusebius c.325 CE.



You can’t really believe that Eusebius, whether inspired or not by the Manichaean one, somehow conjured the Christian persecutions out of thin air - grossly exaggerate, sure.


I do believe in the power of literary propaganda in the hands of an all-powerful, very rich monopoly INDUSTRY over a succession of generations. I do believe that the church organisation was concerned with CONTROLLING opinion - or in other words controlling "heresy". I also happen to believe that there is sufficient evidence to conclude that this church organisation (from the 4th century and throught the Middle Ages) is best viewed as "utterly corrupt" in the full political sense of the term "utterly corrupt".

Therefore IMO one is entitled to seriously, critically and skeptically question any dogmatic claims contained in the literary evidence so-called preserved in the archives of this organisation and transmitted from antiquity to the present.


Anyhow, you’d no doubt agree that the Christians later went on to inflict far worse atrocity on the pagans than had ever been levied against them.



YES. Definitely.

But more importantly, when looked at retrospectively, the Greek NT may just as well have been a political manifesto for the conversion of the gentiles (the "Hellenes" and thus the "pagans") to the Christian NT-Worshipping religion. Because that is precisely what happened in the saga of the political history of the 4th century, between 325-381 CE.


Eusebius is undoubtedly guilty of numerous falsehoods, forgeries of the vilest kind in fact, but, as you variously seem to suggest, hardly invented the Christian religion suddenly in the fourth century off his own bat.


The development the modern attributes of the Christian religion were accomplished in bits and pieces since the 4th century. They include the appropriation of the pagan calendar and festivals. The earliest political appearance of the Christian festival of Christmas is attested c.330 CE when in the rule of Constantine the Christian state appropriated the pagan festival of the midwinter and Saturnalia. The earliest political appearance of the Christian festival of Easter is attested c.325 - as business in the Council of Nicaea - when Constantine and the Christian state Nicene Church appropriated the pagan festival of the Vernal Equinox.

The development of the notion of the Christian Theological Trinity is also from the 4th century. It is derived from Plotinus' treatment of Plato. The Christians only had to change a few words and phrases in Plato in order for the trinity referered to in the Enneads (the "ONE SPIRIT SOUL") to be "Christian".

Image




This first history of the "Nation of Christians" and their "Churches" was prepared by Eusebius in the early 4th century, based upon his laborious and meticulous historical research covering the preceding centuries. Was it peer reviewed?

War is a racket. Constantine was at war. Centralised monotheistic state religions are spin-off rackets from the victors in war. Ardashir implemented a centralised monotheistic state religion in Sassanid Persia c.222 CE based on a canonised holy writ. The Persians became very troublesome to the Romans when they marched with the "One True Song". Constantine followed suit and took the time to implement a centralised monotheistic state religion. It was politically expedient.



Notions of truth demand that Eusebius should simply not be relied upon, except where he’s supported by earlier, or at least contemporary writers, or by strong circumstantial evidence, if only in that he constantly strives to create the impression, at times skillfully so, that the canonical gospels existed far earlier than actually the case.


When we learn to put down our "Eusebius" and pay more attention to the archaeology, the C14 and the extra-biblical evidence then we will IMHO begin to understand just how late the canonical gospels may have been fabricated.


I’ve always fancied these words of Faustus, replying to Augustine:

“Besides as we have proved, again and again, the writings are not the production of Christ or of his apostles, but a compilation of rumors and beliefs, made long after their departure, by some obscure semi-Jews, not in harmony even with one another, and published by them under the name of the apostles, or of those considered the followers of the apostles, so as to give the appearance of apostolic authority, to all these blunders and falsehoods.”



Damasus makes a good case study on the appearance of apostolic authority, and the business opportunities inherent in the claim "PETER WAS HERE IN ROME" for the Church Tourism Industry. Damasus was the first Christian Bishop to hold the ancient pagan title of "Pontifex Maximus"



You say: “My claim is that Ammianus attests to a religious inquisition. And I reject your assessment of this as nonsense. The tribunal was established by the Emperor of the centralised Christian monotheistic state to TRY those pagans who's names were mentioned in documents (containing references to the Divinity) in a pagan temple. Also you seem to dismiss the notion of the law of "majestas" to which the Christian Emperors were accustomed. To hold a different opinion that the Emperor was deemed as a crime against the majesty of the emperor, and it was dealt with as if the crime had been treason. The opinions of Constantine and Constantius were first and foremost Christian. Both pumped NT Bible codices out of their imperial scriptoria for the Nicene Church INDUSTRY.”

Ammianus does naught of the kind! Neither was the empire at that time a ‘Christian monotheistic state’. Injecting ‘majestas’ into the event, something not even remotely mooted by the author, merely strikes me as far-fetched, unsubstantiated and somewhat self-serving speculation on your part.


But Ammianus is not necessarily holding all the evidence in the matter of the use of the law of "majestas" by the Christian emperors. For example, Constantine issues rescripts following the council of Antioch for the torture of members of the upper classes on account of their religious errors. His letter following Nicaea introduces the death penalty (by beheading) of any person preserving the writings of Arius of Alexandria, and not BURNING these writings. Ammianus only starts talking to us from c.353 CE. As you are aware his earlier books are lost. I expect he did write an obituary to Constantine, just as he did for the other emperors - Constantius and Julian etc. I would love to know what he may have written in this obituary.

So Ammianus cuts in late. What happened between 325-353 CE is what I am interested in the most, and the only evidence (outside of the ECCLESIASTICAL HISTORIES of the Christian Church organisation) that I can find for this period is the relatively recent discovery of the Nag Hammadi library. Enter Pachomius into the spotlight. Was he really a Christian?



Extrapolating from the latter part of your logic, the emperors would seemingly be obliged to eliminate all the pagans in the empire, if only to safeguard their precious majestas!


Both pagans and non-"Orthodox". That's precisely what happened in the cities and towns at least. The country people still just grew crops and followed their ancient traditions, oblivious for some time to the Christianisation of the Roman Empire. Theodosius makes a solid case 381 CE. Cyril (d.444 CE) cleaned up the end game by anathematising his opponents and trying his best to censor the three books written by Emperor Julian "Against the Christians".


You say: “If the persecution of Christians by the pagan Emperor was just a propaganda exercise during the establishment of the Nicene Church (which I suspect and argue that it was), then we are left with the emergence of the Christian state and the persecution of the pagans and any other heretics the Nicene Church cared to define. At the minimalist position, persecution and intolerance are the two most foremost characteristics of the 4th century Nicene Church organisation. Do you wish to deny this?”

Who asserts that Christian persecution was just a propaganda exercise?


I think that there is a good chance that it was just a propaganda exercise. Others, reject some or many of the instances of persecution during the rule of this or that emperor. The thread in this forum covers the nine possible instances.


You say: “I think it important to point out that the Nicene version of Christianity started in the cities and only later expanded to the provincial regions. It followed the dioceses which had previously been established as military divisions of the empire by Diocletian. Alexandria, Rome, Constantinople, Antioch.”

Please substantiate.


Whatever Christianity was before the Nicene Council, from 325 CE it became politically corrupted in the hands of the Emperor Constantine who, according to one source, appointed over 1800 bishops during his rule throughout the empire. Constantine refered to himself as the "Bishop of Bishops" and also as "The Thirteenth Apostle". I have mentioned changes to the pagan civil calendar during his rule for Easter and Christmas.

My point is that the Nicene version of the Christian Church Organisation was totally revamped by Constantine, and I have little doubt that some of his most trusted "Bishops" were appointed out of the upper levels of his army. This possibility immediately explains why the Christian church has always been a male dominated bunch of misogynists.

In any event, the spread of the Nicene Church started with the Councils of Antioch and Nicaea and took hold first in the major cities of the empire which Constantine could easily control with the army. He brought far more of the army from the provinces and borders and had them stationed in the cities.

Robin Lane Fox, "Pagans and Christians, in the Mediterranean World from the second century AD to the conversion of Constantine",

    p.31:

    the word "pagani: in everyday use meant "civilian" and/or "rustic".
    "pagani: first appears in christian inscriptions from early 4th century.
    "pagani: earliest use in the Law Codes in Codex Theodosius 16.2.18 (c.370)
    "pagani: is a word coined by christians -- of the towns and cities.




In reply to my comment that it was ‘a mistake to speak of a single Christian Church’, you say that whatever happened before the Nicene Church established by Constantine in 325 ‘is anyone’s guess’.

What Nicene Church? And you surely don’t think that the Council of Nicea somehow transformed all at once all the different Christian groups into one united harmonious whole!

Wikipedia: “During Constantine's reign, approximately half of those who identified themselves as Christian did not subscribe to the mainstream version of the faith.”

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_o ... lic_Church



Yes its a complex nexus 325 CE.

Other evidence indicates that Constantine had to legislate c.320 CE against rich pagans who were showing a fascinating ingenuity and were claiming exemptions as alleged Christian priests.

Also from Robin Lane Fox - people had "opportune dreams about converting to Christianity" once Constantine took the initiative ...

    p.668:

    "We learn from Gregory of Nazianzus how his father, a great landowner,
    was converted to christianity by an opportune dream in the year 325:
    he had a christian wife already and ended his days
    a the powerful bishop of the family's home town.

Also its commonly admitted that Constantine was paid lip service at the Nicene Council.

No one wanted to openly oppose his doctrines. He was a military dictator.

As to who at that time subscribe to the mainstream version of the faith I don't think there were many. However I think that everyone realised that the mainstream version of the faith was being hammered out by the political activities of the Emperor, and these included legislation, prohibitions, military orders, book burning and Bible production.

Out of this seething military turmoil the Nicene Church was inaugurated and passed (eventually) through the hands of Theodosius and the Utterly Corrupt Middle Age church organisation to the 21st century.


FWIW IMO this controversial political situation of 325 CE spawned the "Other Gospels and Acts". IOW the gnostic gospels and Nag Hammadi texts (etc) are a literary reaction to the political appearance of the Greek NT Bible codex and its use as a political instrument of state at that time by Constantine. The Arian controversy and the controversy over these non canonical books (especially those deemed to be heretical or blasphemous or docetic etc) are highly related. Arius may have authored some of these "Gnostic Gospels of Acts" and this explains why Constantine wanted him dead.


SEE: http://www.rationalskepticism.org/chris ... 49509.html
"It is, I think, expedient to set forth to all mankind the reasons by which I was convinced that
the fabrication of the Christians is a fiction of men composed by wickedness. "

Emperor Julian (362 CE)
User avatar
Leucius Charinus
 
Posts: 913

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41007  Postby Mike S » Sep 29, 2015 4:45 am

dejuror wrote:
dejuror wrote:
The Historical Jesus is really based on the author's imagination and fiction/myth fables called the NT--NEVER historical data


Mike S wrote:

The NT of course reflects but the tiniest fraction of a whole stream of religious writings. In fact, the most celebrated of the second century gospels, originating in the first quarter thereof, happens to be the Gospel of the Hebrews. It makes the first mention of Christ’s miracles, moderate ones, as well as the resurrection of Christ in a material form; the early Jewish Christians did not believe in the doctrine of immaculate conception.


Your claims about the Gospel of Hebrew cannot be shown to be true. You have nothing but your imagination. Please identify an extant manuscript with the Gospel of Hebrews dated to the first quarter of the 2nd century.

There is simply no historical evidence at all that the Jesus Christ story and cult originated with Jews.

The supposed Jewish Christ has NOT yet come.

The Jews have NO history at all of worshiping men as Gods.

The Jesus cult and story is the product of NON-JEWS.

Not a single early extant manuscript of the Jesus story has ever been found in Judea.

Mike S wrote:Then, using the information provided by the Bible to prove or disprove anything relating to Jesus of course merely amounts to circular reasoning, an exercise in futility.


The Christian Bible can be shown to be a work of fiction/myth. It is not circular reasoning to show that the Creation story in the Bible is idiotic brain-dead fiction/myth so it is strange that the massive amount of fiction/myth fables of Jesus from the Holy Ghost conception to Ascension cannot be used to argue that Jesus was a figure of mythology.

I argue that Jesus of the NT was a figure of fiction/myth just like I argue that God in the OT is fiction/myth.



Thank God for the existence of imagination, dejuror!

I’m surprised to hear you say that the ‘Jesus Christ story’ didn’t originate with the Jews, dejuror. How, where, or with who do you think it originated?

The difficulty with substantiating assertions in respect of the Gospel of the Hebrews resides in the fact that an ocean of valuable and painstaking research, much of it superior in my opinion to the commercial dabbling of some of today’s authors, doesn’t appear on the Internet.

Whereas much that does appear, as by way of Wikipedia, is hopelessly biased where not demonstrably false. The Gospel of the Hebrews, as far as I know, only exists by way of quotations and the citations of it by the fathers,

By the way, you’ve got to love the following words (and countless more like it elsewhere):

“Unlike other Jewish-Christian gospels, the Gospel of the Hebrews shows no dependence upon the Gospel of Matthew. The story of the first resurrection appearance to James the Just suggests that the Jewish-Christian community that produced this document claimed James as their founder. It is reasonable to assume that the remainder of the gospel is synoptic in flavor. The Gospel of the Hebrews seems to be independent of the New Testament in the quoted portions; unfortunately, since the gospel is not extant, it is difficult to know whether unquoted portions of the Gospel of the Hebrews might show signs of dependence.”

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/g ... brews.html


In reality, the Gospel of the Hebrews existed anything up to fifty years before the Greek Gospel of Matthew! It’s not in the slightest a case of the former being dependent on the latter, but rather one of Matthew being in large part derived from Hebrews. Likewise, it is absurd to “assume that the remainder of the gospel is synoptic in flavor.”

A large number of scholars have worked on the Gospel of the Hebrews, and its impossible to present even a fraction of their findings or the lengthy parts quoted from it by people like Epiphanius, or even that by Jerome. This gospel also enjoyed a number of different titles (Gospel of the Twelve Apostles but one), but the church fathers almost universally referred to it as a gospel by Matthew.

I’ll try summarize some of the main findings –

The Gospel of the Hebrews, composed no later than the first quarter of the second century from the gospel documents then in circulation, was nearly the only one used by the Jewish Christians generally, as well as the Nazarenes and Ebionites, in the early ages of the Church, right up to the fourth century in fact

It is almost certainly one used by, among others, Justin, the author of the Clementines, Tatian and Hegesippus. It was accepted as a true gospel by Papias, Ignatius, Justin Martyr, Hegesippus and others, and not rejected by Origen and Eusebius. Jerome asserts that the Gospel of the Hebrews was written “in the Chaldee and Syriac languages.”

Even though the church fathers mostly attributed it to Matthew, there didn’t exist any Greek Gospel of Matthew during the first half of the second century; the one receiving so much mention, where not in fact referring to the Gospel of the Hebrews, is a myth.

Some scholars consider the Gospel of the Hebrews the source from which other writings of this kind derived their origin, and then with the present Greek text of Matthew of no value unless it be first compared with the Hebrew Gospel, something which most the fathers in fact seem to have done assiduously.
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41008  Postby Stein » Sep 29, 2015 5:07 am

Mike S wrote:
Stein wrote:

Mike S wrote:

Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.


Excuse me: "[I]f these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one? Moreover, Antiqs. XX is partly at odds with any biblical account of similar incidents. So plainly this contemporary Josephan account of Ananus and James bears no biblical influence either.


Nothing to wriggle out of, Stein – having in mind the Testimonium’s comprehensive nature, I specifically sought to exclude the Josephus references (‘ignoring Josephus’).

Apart from that, excuse my ignorance, but I’m having trouble following your train of thought. Please clarify what you mean.

James, the brother of Jesus, or, more accurately, James, the brother of Jesus bar Damneus?

Josephus never gives two different descriptors to one and the same person. To suppose that James Damneides is the same person as the James summarily stoned by Ananus is to believe in the tooth fairy. We have testimony from before Constantine, before Christianity was ever "mainstreamed", that Josephus already gave to brother James the descriptor "brother of the so-called Christ" in his original ms. (http://www.secularcafe.org/showpost.php ... tcount=225) So James Damneides is someone totally different from the James who was a sibling of Jesus the so-called Christ and who was stoned by Ananus. That latter James is the one we are discussing here, and Josephus was a contemporary and a compatriot of the latter. That's why the evidence in the link that the Josephan reference was original to Josephus after all helps clinch Jesus's historicity. It confirms a contemporary reference by a compatriot to a sibling of Jesus the rabbi. This makes neither the woo believers in Mary's perpetual virginity nor the Kool-aid drinkers in the a-historicist cult happy. GOOD!

Stein
Stein
 
Posts: 2492

United States (us)
Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41009  Postby Mike S » Sep 29, 2015 9:58 am

Leucius Charinus wrote:
The development of the notion of the Christian Theological Trinity is also from the 4th century. It is derived from Plotinus' treatment of Plato. The Christians only had to change a few words and phrases in Plato in order for the trinity referered to in the Enneads (the "ONE SPIRIT SOUL") to be "Christian".


I regret that I lack the time right now to do justice to all of your comments.

The Gentile Christians, enthusiastic to deify their great teacher, mostly ignored the fact they were in the process countenancing polytheism. This tendency, the natural outcome of deifying Christ, culminated in Justin Martyr. He not only refuses to identify the Son with the Father, but explicitly excludes the idea of equality between them.

We thus suddenly end up with two Gods, the one distinct and subordinate to the other. Strong opposition thereto consequently led to the doctrine of the trinity. The divinity of Christ could no longer be abandoned but instead had to be reconciled with monotheism, something achieved by developing the doctrine of the Logos, as already elaborated by Philo.

The Gospel of John thence boldly announced “in the beginning was the Word, And the word was with God, and the Word was God”, the culmination of the doctrine of the Logos, and simultaneously, laying the foundation of the doctrine of the trinity.


You note that it was politically expedient for Constantine “to implement a centralised monotheistic state religion.”

Of course it was! Most scholars are probably willing to accept that the emperor genuinely believed that his military victory was given to him by God. Constantine repeatedly stated that his rule was sanctioned by divine rule; further into his reign this became explicitly the support of the Christian God, with him chosen to govern the empire, just as bishops were chosen to shepherd their congregations.

It’s little wonder then that Constantine was keen to promote unity among the Christians, involving himself with two major disputes within the Church, the first concerning the Donatists, the second the nature of the Trinity. Constantine strove from the first though, to demonstrate that bishops were independent and that he fully respected the decisions of church leaders; they acquiring the right to dispense justice in church disputes.


You furthermore suggest that only by ignoring Eusebius and paying attention to archeology and the extra-biblical evidence etc, will we begin to understand just how late the canonical gospels may have been fabricated.

To the contrary, despite his misdeeds, Eusebius provides much useful information, and many confirmations. Who is it that ignores archeology and the extra-biblical information etc?

More to the point, when do you think the canonical gospels were first produced?


You say much about Constantine in connection with the ‘Nicene Church’.
There’s no doubt that he did much to promote the growth of Christianity, but he was no zealot, and scarcely any Christians at this period seem to have wanted to compel pagans to convert. I also pointed out previously that about half the Christians during his reign did not subscribe to the main orthodoxy.

Constantine also spent over half of his reign in rivalry with competitors for power. Like Diocletian before him, his prime concern was surviving (hence the bloody paranoid purges described by Ammianus). Reforms came later and only gradually. Concentrating on Constantine’s Christianity obscures how traditional most of his behavior was, a style essentially similar to that of Diocletian and other recent emperors.


You assert: “FWIW IMO this controversial political situation of 325 CE spawned the "Other Gospels and Acts". IOW the gnostic gospels and Nag Hammadi texts (etc) are a literary reaction to the political appearance of the Greek NT Bible codex and its use as a political instrument of state at that time by Constantine. The Arian controversy and the controversy over these non canonical books (especially those deemed to be heretical or blasphemous or docetic etc) are highly related. Arius may have authored some of these "Gnostic Gospels of Acts" and this explains why Constantine wanted him dead.”

The Nag Hammadi texts may have been buried but were hardly spawned in response to a “letter from Bishop Athanasius declaring a strict canon of Christian scripture”, or, some “literary reaction to the political appearance of the Greek NT Bible”! I similarly doubt very much doubt “Arius may have authored some of these "Gnostic Gospels of Acts"!

Consider the Gospel of Thomas:
“Assigning a date to the Gospel of Thomas is very complex because it is difficult to know precisely to what a date is being assigned. Scholars have proposed a date as early as 40 AD or as late as 140 AD, depending upon whether the Gospel of Thomas is identified with the original core of sayings, or with the author's published text, or with the Greek or Coptic texts, or with parallels in other literature.”
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas

Or, as Elaine Pagels sees it: “Gnosticism should be considered at least as legitimate as orthodox Christianity because the ‘[heresy’ was simply a competing strain of early Christianity.”

It must also follow that I don’t give any credence to your “alternate theory … that none of gnostic gospels or acts were authored before the council of Nicaea, and that these literary creations were a reaction and response to the political appearance of the NT Bible in the rule of Constantine c.325 CE.”
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41010  Postby dejuror » Sep 29, 2015 2:19 pm

dejuror wrote:
Your claims about the Gospel of Hebrew cannot be shown to be true. You have nothing but your imagination. Please identify an extant manuscript with the Gospel of Hebrews dated to the first quarter of the 2nd century.

There is simply no historical evidence at all that the Jesus Christ story and cult originated with Jews....



Mike S wrote:
Thank God for the existence of imagination, dejuror!

Thank who??

Mike S wrote:
I’m surprised to hear you say that the ‘Jesus Christ story’ didn’t originate with the Jews, dejuror. How, where, or with who do you think it originated?

The difficulty with substantiating assertions in respect of the Gospel of the Hebrews resides in the fact that an ocean of valuable and painstaking research, much of it superior in my opinion to the commercial dabbling of some of today’s authors, doesn’t appear on the Internet.


You have a lot of problems if you cannot substantiate your assertions about the "Gospel of Hebrews".
dejuror
 
Posts: 4759

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41011  Postby dejuror » Sep 29, 2015 5:01 pm

Stein wrote:
Josephus never gives two different descriptors to one and the same person. To suppose that James Damneides is the same person as the James summarily stoned by Ananus is to believe in the tooth fairy. We have testimony from before Constantine, before Christianity was ever "mainstreamed", that Josephus already gave to brother James the descriptor "brother of the so-called Christ" in his original ms. (http://www.secularcafe.org/showpost.php ... tcount=225) So James Damneides is someone totally different from the James who was a sibling of Jesus the so-called Christ and who was stoned by Ananus. That latter James is the one we are discussing here, and Josephus was a contemporary and a compatriot of the latter. That's why the evidence in the link that the Josephan reference was original to Josephus after all helps clinch Jesus's historicity. It confirms a contemporary reference by a compatriot to a sibling of Jesus the rabbi. This makes neither the woo believers in Mary's perpetual virginity nor the Kool-aid drinkers in the a-historicist cult happy. GOOD!

Stein


You use the very same woo woo non-historical story of Bible Jesus for your HJ.

The son of a Ghost made a sermon on the Mount in the woo woo myth/fiction fables called the NT and you say that it was YOUR HJ.

In the woo woo Pauline Corpus Jesus was the LORD from heaven and God's own Son yet you claim Bible Jesus was really a Rabbi.

Antiquities of the Jews does not idenfify any character called Jesus the Rabbi.

Jesus the Rabbi is found ONLY in the WOO WOO myth/fiction fables called the NT.

Jesus the Rabbi was God Creator in the WOO WOO gJohn.

Your HJ is a direct product of WOO WOO myth/fiction fables CALLED the NT.

You use the WOO WOO Christian Bible for the history of your Rabbi.
dejuror
 
Posts: 4759

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41012  Postby RealityRules » Sep 29, 2015 11:13 pm

Stein wrote:
Mike S wrote:
Anyway, ignoring Josephus, and as others have pointed out, even if these mentions were somehow authentic, they still wouldn’t substantiate the existence of a historical Jesus.

Excuse me: "if these mentions were somehow authentic"? If only the Antiqs. XX is authentic by itself, then we have right there a contemporary's -- and a compatriot's -- reference to a victim of Ananus's cruelty, brother James. How do you wriggle out of that one? Moreover, Antiqs. XX is partly at odds with any biblical account of similar incidents. So plainly this contemporary Josephan account of Ananus and James bears no biblical influence either. Stein

This recent exchange at Biblical Criticism and History is interesting and pertinent: it shows the 'Josephan account of Ananus' in Antiquities is at odds with Josephus's earlier account of Ananus in War of the Jews -

Maryhelena -
Just to throw the cat among the pigeons......a link to an old thread of mine* -

1) If the James passage in Antiquities is a Christian interpolation - then these Christians have unwittingly linked the gospel story to the DSS. A story about a wicked priest and a teacher of righteousness. The Antiquities story reverses the story in the DSS, i.e. Antiquities has James (the teacher of righteousness) killed whereas the DSS has the wicked priest killed. This reversal is indicated via the reversal of characher that Josephus ascribes to the wicked priest, Ananus - from good character in War to bad characher in Antiquities.

2) If the passage was from the pen of the Josephan writer - then linkage between Hasmonean history, the DSS and the gospel story is being indicated. Consequently, raising questions regarding the influence of Josephus on early Christian writings.


http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 158#p41158

John2 -
Maryhelena wrote:

    "The Antiquities story reverses the story in the DSS, i.e. Antiquities has James (the teacher of righteousness) killed whereas the DSS has the wicked priest killed. This reversal is indicated via the reversal of characher that Josephus ascribes to the wicked priest, Ananus - from good character in War to bad characher in Antiquities."
Actually, the Teacher of Righteous was killed, which is why the Wicked Priest was killed in return as punishment from God. The Teacher was alive when the Psalm 37 Pesher was composed, but not when the Habakkuk Pesher was composed.

Psalm 37 Pesher (col. 4):

    "This refers to the wicked [Pri]est who ob[serv]es the [Teach]er of Righteous[ness and seeks] to kill him [ . . . ] and the Law that he sent to him, but God will not le[ave him in his power] and will not [condemn him when] he comes to trial. But to the [wicked God will give] his just [de]serts, by putting him into the power of the cruel Gentiles to do with him [what they want]."
Habakkuk Pesher (col. 9):

    "Interpreted, this concerns the Wicked Priest whom God delivered into the hands of his enemies because of the iniquity committed against the Teacher of Righteousness and the men of his Council, that he might be humbled by means of a destroying scourge, in bitterness of soul, because he had done wickedly to His elect."
Habakkuk Pesher (col. 11):

    "Interpreted, this concerns the Wicked Priest who pursued the Teacher of Righteousness to the house of his exile that he might confuse him with his venomous fury. And at the time appointed for rest, for the Day of Atonement, he appeared before them to confuse them, and to cause them to stumble on the Day of Fasting, their Sabbath of repose."
These are Vermes' translations of the Habakkuk Pesher and, as I mentioned to Spin last year, the word that Vermes translates as "confuse" here is the same word in Hab. 1:13 that is generally translated as "swallow" and also has the sense of destroying:

http://biblehub.com/habakkuk/1-13.htm

http://biblehub.com/hebrew/1104.htm

I think this makes the best sense here because the Psalm 37 Pesher says that the Wicked Priest planned to try and kill the Teacher of Righteousness, and it's laughable to me to imagine the idea that the Wicked Priest was killed in revenge for only arguing with the Teacher and his friends.

http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 164#p41164

I [John2] also wrote last year:

    "Regarding the issue of why Josephus presents Ananus in a positive light in the Jewish War and a negative one in the Antiquities, the DSS say that the Wicked Priest "was called by the name of truth when he first arose. But when he ruled over Israel his heart became proud, and he forsook God and betrayed the precepts for the sake of riches" (1QpHab col. 8), and that his "ignominy was greater than his glory" (col. 11).
This could explain Josephus' good and bad presentations of Ananus, and fits his statement that Ananus was deposed "after he had ruled for only three months," since the Wicked Priest had become proud "when he ruled over Israel."

This statement also indicates that Doudna may be incorrect when he says that
    "an historical Wicked Priest of Pesher Habakkuk, if there was one, would be active before Herod, because this figure is portrayed as ruling over Israel, but not much before Herod, because the Wicked Priest’s regime is portrayed as falling in the context of a Kittim or Roman invasion, and the Romans are not in Judea until the middle of the first century bce."
http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 164#p41164

Spin also agreed with this interpretation of "bala" in the Habakkuk Pesher in a response to John T (and which, BTW, shows that I'm NOT John T):

John T wrote:

    "it is now up to you Spin and Stephan to place your finger on the text where it talks about the death of the Teacher of Righteousness. Please note you can blow up the text if needed to read it clearly."
To which Spin replied:

    "It was dealt with sufficiently by John2 here. Going to the manuscript is unnecessary. There are no problem readings in col.11 lines 4-5, which talk of the wicked priest (הכהן הרשע) who pursued (רדף אחר, "pursue after") the teacher of righteousness (ורהמ הצדק) to consume him (ל׃בלעו) in the heat.... The verb בלע means "to consume, devour" and is used frequently enough indicating destruction in the old testament. He pursued him in order to destroy him. In col. lines 9-10 the wicked priest is punished for his wickedness against the wicked teacher, which is commentary on Hab 2:8b which talks of human bloodshed. Not only did the wicked priest pursue the teacher of righteousness to destroy him, he succeeded in shedding his blood and was thus punished for it according to the pesher writer. And there is nothing complicated, contentious or doubtful in the text on the subject."
http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 171#p41171

Maryhelena
Maryhelena wrote:
"The Antiquities story reverses the story in the DSS, i.e. Antiquities has James (the teacher of righteousness) killed whereas the DSS has the wicked priest killed. This reversal is indicated via the reversal of characher that Josephus ascribes to the wicked priest, Ananus - from good character in War to bad characher in Antiquities."
John2 wrote:
Actually, the Teacher of Righteous was killed, which is why the Wicked Priest was killed in return as punishment from God. The Teacher was alive when the Psalm 37 Pesher was composed, but not when the Habakkuk Pesher was composed.

From Greg Doudna's article on the Bible and Interpretation site:

    A Narrative Argument that the Teacher of Righteousness was Hyrcanus II.

    The reaction of the Wicked Priest to the law sent from the Teacher is: he rejects the law sent, and he tries to kill the sender, the Teacher. (But in the texts he does not kill the Teacher, despite his intent.) The reaction of the Wicked Priest implies something significant was at stake in the world of the text with this “law”.
The point of my post was to draw attention to how the scholarship of Greg Doudna can throw some light upon the Josephan story about James and Ananus. i.e. a story about a wicked priest and a man, a teacher, of righteousness.

http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 175#p41175

John2 -
And my point is that both the Teacher of Righteousness and the Wicked Priest were killed in the DSS (like James and Ananus in Josephus), so there is no "reversal" of anything going on here.

http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 178#p41178

Maryhelena -
The reversal is this:

In the reconstruction/interpretation of the relevant DSS material, Greg Doudna, has identified the wicked priest as Antigonus II. He has identified the Teacher of Righeousness as Hyrcanus II. Historically, re Josephus, Antigonus was executed prior to the death/killing of Hyrcanus. The dates usually assigned to these events are 37 b.c. for Antigonus and 30 b.e. for Hyrcanus. i.e. a 7 year gap between the two killings. Likewise, Josephus, has a period of time between the killing of James and the death of Ananus prior to the fall of Jerusalem. Josephus, however, in his story, reverses the order in which two antagonists are killed. i.e. Josephus has James, brother of Jesus called Christ, killed prior to the death of Ananus, the wicked priest. Josephus himself reversing his own, earlier in 'War', characterization of the high priest, Ananus.

Sure, one can dismiss the scholarship of Greg Doudna on the DSS - as one can dismiss whatever scholarship that one does not find compelling. I happen to find it useful in connection with the story of James and Ananus in Antiquities Bk.20.

http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... 181#p41181

That points about differences in the two writings of Josephus are interesting.
User avatar
RealityRules
 
Name: GMak
Posts: 2998

New Zealand (nz)
Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41013  Postby dejuror » Sep 30, 2015 2:28 am

Jesus called the Anointed [Christ] in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 was ALIVE in the time of Nero so could not be the supposed Jesus of Nazareth who was crucified in the time of Pilate in the fiction/myth fables called the NT.
dejuror
 
Posts: 4759

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41014  Postby Mike S » Sep 30, 2015 2:42 am

Stein wrote:
Josephus never gives two different descriptors to one and the same person. To suppose that James Damneides is the same person as the James summarily stoned by Ananus is to believe in the tooth fairy. We have testimony from before Constantine, before Christianity was ever "mainstreamed", that Josephus already gave to brother James the descriptor "brother of the so-called Christ" in his original ms. (http://www.secularcafe.org/showpost.php ... tcount=225) So James Damneides is someone totally different from the James who was a sibling of Jesus the so-called Christ and who was stoned by Ananus. That latter James is the one we are discussing here, and Josephus was a contemporary and a compatriot of the latter. That's why the evidence in the link that the Josephan reference was original to Josephus after all helps clinch Jesus's historicity. It confirms a contemporary reference by a compatriot to a sibling of Jesus the rabbi. This makes neither the woo believers in Mary's perpetual virginity nor the Kool-aid drinkers in the a-historicist cult happy. GOOD! Stein


Please Stein, have mercy, not Tim O'Neill! - Your fellow traveler in the endless quest for a humbler Jesus, one non-supernatural, one ‘wholly unnoticed by any literate person in Judaea’!

I’m sorry Stein, but I simply can’t buy your arguments – simply too thin, iffy, too airy-fairy.

I’m sure you already know all the many arguments against. For only some of them:

http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/james.html

http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/josephus-etal.html


Then, as exhaustively pointed out by so many, the words don’t mean much without the Testimonium, whereas others suggest a fraternal sense for the word ‘brother’.

“Yet Josephus's second reference falls both because it is dependent upon the earlier (false) reference for explanation – and because it actually refers to "Jesus, the son of Damneus" who was made high priest by king Agrippa!”
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41015  Postby Mike S » Sep 30, 2015 2:51 am

Substantiate my assertions in respect of the Gospel of the Hebrews, dejuror?

I’ve no idea how long it will take you to read it all but the following link will furnish you with the full text of "The Gospel according to the Hebrews: its fragments translated and annotated with a critical analysis of the external and internal evidence relating to it"

https://archive.org/stream/thegospelacc ... t_djvu.txt

Googling the name of this gospel results in more than 10 million links – good luck!


As well, you categorically asserted that the ‘Jesus Christ story’ did not originate with the Jews.

No doubt you’re too modest to answer but I’d really like to know.

How or with who do you think it originated?
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41016  Postby dejuror » Sep 30, 2015 3:05 am

It is admitted in Christian writings that Jewish High Priests were Anointed and called the Anointed [Christ] by Jews.

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/250101.htm

Church History 1. 3
7. And not only those who were honored with the high priesthood, and who for the sake of the symbol were anointed with especially prepared oil, were adorned with the name of Christ among the Hebrews, but also the kings whom the prophets anointed under the influence of the divine Spirit, and thus constituted, as it were, typical Christs.


http://www.attalus.org/translate/paschal.html

The Chronicon Paschale]
Until Jannaeus, who was also called Alexander, there were annointed leaders; but with him the succession of high priests who led the nation came to an end. They were called Christs by the prophets.


The word Christ is derived from the Greek word which means "the anointed" and other persons were called the anointed [Christ] in The Greek Christian Bible.

It is virtually impossible to show that Jesus called the Anointed [Christ] was not the High Priest in Antiquities of the Jews. 20.9.1.
dejuror
 
Posts: 4759

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41017  Postby Leucius Charinus » Sep 30, 2015 4:02 am

Mike S wrote:This tendency, the natural outcome of deifying Christ, culminated in Justin Martyr. He not only refuses to identify the Son with the Father, but explicitly excludes the idea of equality between them.


The manuscript tradition and transmission history for the writings attributed to the identity of "Father Justin" have very little integrity. They appear at least in part to be the product of retroscriptive activities. I understand perfectly well that you are simply citing literary material sourced in various ecclesiastical histories or other church organisation literary material,

I'd just like to ask you with what certitude, for example, do you attribute these references in "Father Justin" to a bona fide author in the 2nd century? A percentage estimate would be cool. Be as specific as you like about the manuscript tradition for "Father Justin".
"It is, I think, expedient to set forth to all mankind the reasons by which I was convinced that
the fabrication of the Christians is a fiction of men composed by wickedness. "

Emperor Julian (362 CE)
User avatar
Leucius Charinus
 
Posts: 913

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41018  Postby Leucius Charinus » Sep 30, 2015 4:28 am

Mike S wrote:You note that it was politically expedient for Constantine “to implement a centralised monotheistic state religion.”

Of course it was! Most scholars are probably willing to accept that the emperor genuinely believed that his military victory was given to him by God. Constantine repeatedly stated that his rule was sanctioned by divine rule; further into his reign this became explicitly the support of the Christian God, with him chosen to govern the empire, just as bishops were chosen to shepherd their congregations.


Diocese by diocese. [Military divisions of the empire implemented by Diocletian]

It’s little wonder then that Constantine was keen to promote unity among the Christians, involving himself with two major disputes within the Church, the first concerning the Donatists, the second the nature of the Trinity. Constantine strove from the first though, to demonstrate that bishops were independent and that he fully respected the decisions of church leaders; they acquiring the right to dispense justice in church disputes.


The political expediency sought by Constantine was not limited to the laws and creeds and "Canonical Books" binding Christian orthodoxy together. Constantine wanted total control of the civil legal system, and he used his appointed bishops to obtain this goal. By the year 333 CE Constantine decreed that the bishops had acquired the right to dispense justice in civil disputes.

    "Judicial decisions made by bishops are to be upheld. Enforcement is to be the responsibility of the prefect. If a party to a law suit may request the case to be heard by a bishop rather than a secular judge, the request is to be granted.

    ~ Codex Theodosianus"

The Emperor appointed the (so-called Christian) Bishops not just to serve within the church organisation, but to surpass the jurisdiction of the magistrates of civil law.

As a side note Constantine's laws about divorce at this time are very intriguing.

The following from - http://www.mountainman.com.au/essenes/a ... lladas.htm

Epigram of Palladas
AP 11.378

    I am unable to bear both a wife and grammar too - grammar is unprofitable, and my wife is unjust (unmanageable?). From both I suffer death and fate. Thus, just now, I have barely escaped from grammar. But I am unable to flee from my man-hating wife, for a piece of paper and Roman law prevent it.


Wilkinson writes these comments:

    W1; page 49 ... This epigram contains a chronological clue that has been hitherto overlooked. Whether or not the poet genuinely wanted to divorce his wife, his claim that a piece of paper (sc. his marriage contract) and Roman law prevented him from doing so is sensible only at certain points in the history of the Empire. In the first place, no one would be justified in saying such a thing before Constantine. Whatever the situation prior to the late Republic, unilateral divorce (as opposed to divorce by mutual consent, which remained unrestricted until the time of Justinian) had been very straightforward under Roman law between the first century and A.D. 331. This is the year in which Constantine imposed penalties that made it all but impossible for women and extremely difficult for men.
    Any woman who divorced her husband against his will without being able to prove that he was a murderer, a sorcerer, or a tomb-defiler forfeited all of her property and could be sent into exile. A man was permitted to repudiate his wife only if he could prove that she was an adulteress, a sorceress, or a procuress (conciliatrix) . Should the wife be innocent of these crimes, the divorcing husband had to restore her dowry and he was forced to remain single for the duration of his life. Any future attempt on his part to remarry entitled the first wife to financial compensation. Constantine's legislation did much more than merely discourage unilateral divorce; it seems to have been an attempt to stamp out the practice in all but the most extreme cases. This revolution in Roman divorce law supplies a terminus post quem of A.D. 331 for Palladas' epigram.

    One can only imagine that this Constantinian reform was an extremely unpopular measure. But our knowledge of its fate in subsequent years is hampered somewhat by the fact that no manuscript preserves the third book of the Theodosian Code.




Could Constantine have made divorce impossible under the civil law codes, and then used his own Divorce-Fee-Incurring Bishops to rake in the profits derived from a monopoly in the (very healthy) divorce industry in the Roman Empire c.333 CE?


Any opinions?
"It is, I think, expedient to set forth to all mankind the reasons by which I was convinced that
the fabrication of the Christians is a fiction of men composed by wickedness. "

Emperor Julian (362 CE)
User avatar
Leucius Charinus
 
Posts: 913

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41019  Postby Mike S » Sep 30, 2015 7:36 am

Leucius Charinus wrote:
Mike S wrote:This tendency, the natural outcome of deifying Christ, culminated in Justin Martyr. He not only refuses to identify the Son with the Father, but explicitly excludes the idea of equality between them.


The manuscript tradition and transmission history for the writings attributed to the identity of "Father Justin" have very little integrity. They appear at least in part to be the product of retroscriptive activities. I understand perfectly well that you are simply citing literary material sourced in various ecclesiastical histories or other church organisation literary material,

I'd just like to ask you with what certitude, for example, do you attribute these references in "Father Justin" to a bona fide author in the 2nd century? A percentage estimate would be cool. Be as specific as you like about the manuscript tradition for "Father Justin".




You understand perfectly well that I cite literary material in ecclesiastical histories or other church material? Why would you think that? My information in fact derives mainly from memory and my own extensive secular library.

As far as I’m aware there only exist copies of Justin’s first and second Apologies, together with the Trypho Dialogue.

The question of dating religious manuscripts, or perhaps even more importantly, establishing the priority of one manuscript over another, is a matter of tedious, painstaking scriptural analysis, employing a variety of techniques, and to which some scholars devoted much of their lives.

For instance, careful study of the Gospel of Marcion, written about 145, reveals internal evidence of having preceded the Gospel of Luke, irrespective of what Eusebius or other church fathers may avow. It isn’t necessary to assume here that either of these gospels was copied directly from the other, but the mere fact that nearly every word of Marcion is in Luke, is by itself already a strong indication (by the ‘law of accretion’), that the author of Luke had before him, in addition to a number of other, older manuscripts, the Gospel of Marcion in its entirety.

By similar means it can be shown that the Protevangelion and the Gospel of the Infancy were clearly written before Luke and Matthew, and the Acts of Pilate before any of the canonical gospels, and so forth. It is thus that scholars are able to construct a fairly accurate picture, an interconnecting labyrinth or mosaic, if you like, both as to manuscript date and order.

There’s no satisfactory evidence that Justin Martyr, who wrote fully as late as the middle of the second century, knew of the existence of the canonical gospels at all, neither does he mention them by name. To the contrary, not only does he quote sayings of Christ different from those recorded in the four gospels, but also he relates some which have no parallel in any of them.

Some of the earlier scholars would have it that Justin wrote around 139 because of the title he bestowed on the emperor Verissimus, but most of the later ones placed it nearer to 150, if only because it fits better with what he says of Marcion.

You ask with ‘what certitude’ I attribute these references in "Father Justin" to a bona fide author in the 2nd century.’ Why not carry out a detailed study of your own and form your own conclusions? Or, put the question to Carrier or Doherty or any of the other leading lights in this field.

I regret that if I had to choose between the centuries-long work of hundreds of scholars (many of which seemed to have been better qualified than some of today’s high-profile media-ponies) and seemingly groundless speculation suggesting that all these early writings (including the four gospels?) were somehow concocted in the reign of Constantine, I’d have to go for the former.
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

Re: Historical Jesus

#41020  Postby Mike S » Sep 30, 2015 9:03 am

Leucius Charinus wrote:
The political expediency sought by Constantine was not limited to the laws and creeds and "Canonical Books" binding Christian orthodoxy together. Constantine wanted total control of the civil legal system, and he used his appointed bishops to obtain this goal. By the year 333 CE Constantine decreed that the bishops had acquired the right to dispense justice in civil disputes.


Appearances can be deceiving -

http://www.fourthcentury.com/index.php/ ... aws-notes/

“Life of Constantine:

The authenticity of many of Constantine’s laws in found in the Life of Constantine is questionable, especially the laws supposedly passed against paganism. The Life of Constantine was not a purely historical work, but a work praising and admiring the emperor from a Christian perspective. All records of anti-pagan legislation by Constantine are found in the Life of Constantine, leading many to question the veracity of such reports. Scott Bradbury (see below) argues that anti-pagan laws were passed, but not expected to be enforced. Rather, they served as an ideal or ethical law. He gives examples of this type of law, and shows that anti-pagan legislation was only cautiously and partly enforced as late as 398. He shows how references in Theodosian code 16.10.2 and Libanius’ autobiography suggest that such laws were passed but not enforced.
Others (such as Curran below) have argued that anti-pagan legislation was never passed, and such records by Eusebius only reflect the emperor’s personal inclinations. Unfrequented temples may have been torn down to build churches, and such incidences were reinterpreted by Eusebius in light of Constantine’s personal detest for pagan sacrifices.”
Mike S
 
Posts: 76

Print view this post

PreviousNext

Return to Christianity

Who is online

Users viewing this topic: No registered users and 8 guests

cron