Mohammad

Abrahamic religion, you know, the one with the mosques...

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Re: Mohammad

#101  Postby Agrippina » Mar 18, 2010 4:37 pm

To continue on something i was saying this morning on morality. And remember I'm not saying that the violation of peoples' human rights is ever 'right' but what if the people committing the act don't see it as immoral. Is our subjective morality interfering with what their subjective morality is, for instance the little girls issue. Maybe in the society where they are used merely as sex objects it is not seen as being as repulsive as the idea is to us? Are we therefore right to try to convince them about what should be right. (Just being impartial here).
A mind without instruction can no more bear fruit than can a field, however fertile, without cultivation. - Marcus Tullius Cicero (106 BCE - 43 BCE)
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Re: Mohammad

#102  Postby rJD » Mar 18, 2010 4:45 pm

Agrippina wrote:To continue on something i was saying this morning on morality. And remember I'm not saying that the violation of peoples' human rights is ever 'right' but what if the people committing the act don't see it as immoral. Is our subjective morality interfering with what their subjective morality is, for instance the little girls issue. Maybe in the society where they are used merely as sex objects it is not seen as being as repulsive as the idea is to us? Are we therefore right to try to convince them about what should be right. (Just being impartial here).

Well, there is a (legitimate) argument that part of the reason it is so morally wrong now is that we, as a society, both fetishise childhood and also project our disgust at the act on to the child, so that the child feels violated when they might otherwise be largely unworried by the act itself.

I still regard adults having sex with children, whether Mohammed or modern followers, as generally abusive and thus worth prohibiting as a society, and this in now way excuses modern Muslims pointing to Mo as an exemplar for modern life - on the contrary.
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Re: Mohammad

#103  Postby InDeoRideo » Mar 18, 2010 4:47 pm

I think this is an appealing form of hypothetical objective morality.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_Theory_of_Justice
Wiki about John Rawl's A Theory of Justice wrote:Like Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Kant, Rawls belongs to the social contract tradition. However, Rawls' social contract takes a slightly different view from that of previous thinkers. Specifically, Rawls develops what he claims are principles of justice through the use of an entirely and deliberately artificial device he calls the Original position in which everyone decides principles of justice from behind a veil of ignorance. This "veil" is one that essentially blinds people to all facts about themselves that might cloud what notion of justice is developed.

"no one knows his place in society, his class position or social status, nor does anyone know his fortune in the distribution of natural assets and abilities, his intelligence, strength, and the like. I shall even assume that the parties do not know their conceptions of the good or their special psychological propensities. The principles of justice are chosen behind a veil of ignorance."

According to Rawls, ignorance of these details about oneself will lead to principles that are fair to all. If an individual does not know how he will end up in his own conceived society, he is likely not going to privilege any one class of people, but rather develop a scheme of justice that treats all fairly. In particular, Rawls claims that those in the Original Position would all adopt a maximin strategy which would maximise the position of the least well-off.

They are the principles that rational and free persons concerned to further their own interests would accept in an initial position of equality as defining the fundamentals of the terms of their association [Rawls, p 11]

It is important to keep in mind that the agreement that stems from the original position is both hypothetical and ahistorical. It is hypothetical in the sense that the principles to be derived are what the parties would, under certain legitimating conditions, agree to, not what they have agreed to. In other words, Rawls seeks to persuade us through argument that the principles of justice that he derives are in fact what we would agree upon if we were in the hypothetical situation of the original position and that those principles have moral weight as a result of that. It is ahistorical in the sense that it is not supposed that the agreement has ever, or indeed could actually be entered into as a matter of fact.

Rawls claims that the parties in the original position would adopt two such principles, which would then govern the assignment of rights and duties and regulate the distribution of social and economic advantages across society.The difference principle permits inequalities in the distribution of goods only if those inequalities benefit the worst-off members of society. Rawls believes that this principle would be a rational choice for the representatives in the original position for the following reason: Each member of society has an equal claim on their society’s goods. Natural attributes should not affect this claim, so the basic right of any individual, before further considerations are taken into account, must be to an equal share in material wealth. What, then, could justify unequal distribution? Rawls argues that inequality is acceptable only if it is to the advantage of those who are worst-off.
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Re: Mohammad

#104  Postby rJD » Mar 18, 2010 4:57 pm

InDeoRideo, interesting article - but I still don't think you could infer an objective morality from it. For a start, even in the case of people not knowing their place in society or skills, there are still different characteristics in people that would result in different moralities being produced. Further, moral codes don't ever exist in a vaccuum; circumstances change and, even if the basic forces such as empathy and justice, which are fairly well established as inherent in us, remain stable, the expression of these will necessarily change over time to reflect these changing circumstances.
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Re: Mohammad

#105  Postby InDeoRideo » Mar 18, 2010 6:23 pm

rJD wrote:InDeoRideo, interesting article - but I still don't think you could infer an objective morality from it. For a start, even in the case of people not knowing their place in society or skills, there are still different characteristics in people that would result in different moralities being produced.

which different characteristics? You are essentially blind to all your characteristics behind the veil of ignorance.

rJD wrote: Further, moral codes don't ever exist in a vaccuum; circumstances change and, even if the basic forces such as empathy and justice, which are fairly well established as inherent in us, remain stable, the expression of these will necessarily change over time to reflect these changing circumstances.

What kind of changing circumstances?
Can there be a circumstance in which a rational being behind the veil of ignorance would allow the raping of children?
Well... this is still not helpful when I think about it... it's still subjective. :think:
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